| Post Name | ACCOUNTANT GR.III (Kerala State Coir Corporation Ltd.) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 099/2024 |
| Category Code | 130/2023 |
| Date of Test | 27 November 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The charging of depreciation on fixed assets is based on :
Answer
B. Cost Concept
2
Accounting Standard
Answer
C. Valuation of inventories
3
The Proforma invoice in consignment is prepared by :
Answer
A. Consignor
4
Opening stock is Rs. 8,000, closing stock is Rs. 5,000 and cost of goods sold is Rs. 90,000, the
amount of purchase will be :
Answer
D. Rs. 87,000
5
Prepaid salary is :
Answer
B. an Asset
6
X and Y are partners who share profit and loss in the ratio 3 : 2, a new partner C is admitted
with 1/5th share in profit. The new profit sharing ratio is :
Answer
C. 12 : 8 : 5
7
At the time of dissolution of a firm, assets are transferred to realization account at :
Answer
D. None of these
8
Imprest system is related with :
Answer
C. Petty cash book
9
Which of the following is an example of fictitious asset?
Answer
D. All of these
10
Del credere commission in consignment is given by the consignor to the consignee :
Answer
B. For bearing the risk of bad debts
11
Under capitalization is characterized by :
Answer
A. Higher earnings
12
The variability of ——————— caused by the financial leverage is the financial risk.
Answer
C. Contribution
13
Capital budgeting is related to :
Answer
B. Long term capital
14
Which of the following is not a time adjusted method of capital budgeting?
Answer
A. Rate of Return Method
15
The risk-free rate of return of Modern Traders is 8% and its expected return from market is
36%. If the company has an equity Beta of 80%, what will be the cost of the company’s equity
as per CAPM?
Answer
D. 30.4
16
Operating leverage is calculated by :
Answer
D. Contribution Ă· EBIT
17
Which of the following method is used for raising capital in primary market?
Answer
D. All of these
099/2024 4 A
18
Which of the following is not an assumption of MM Approach of Dividend policy?
Answer
C. Variable Investment policy
19
Relevance theory of Dividend is formulated by :
Answer
B. Walter and Gorden
20
EOQ in the following case is :
Annual Consumption 10,000 kg, Cost of placing an order Rs. 50, Cost per kg of material
Rs. 8, Storage cost 8% on average inventory
Answer
A. 2,500
21
Positive approach to reduce expenditure is termed as :
Answer
B. Cost Reduction
22
FIFO is not suitable for which of the below case :
Answer
D. Most recent costs are charged against current production and sales
23
Budget which is prepared for use unaltered over a long period of time :
Answer
A. Basic Budget
24
Formula used for Margin of safety :
Answer
D. All of the above
25
The type of standard best suitable for control purpose :
Answer
A. Normal standard
26
What are the different Control Ratios?
Answer
D. All of the Above
A 5 099/2024
27
Which is a component of an Overhead?
Answer
B. Indirect Expenses
28
Break-Even chart is a graphic relationship between :
Answer
D. All of the above
29
Process costing is not suitable for :
Answer
A. Hospital
30
Cost Incurred when a business unit closes :
Answer
C. Shutdown Cost
31
TQM stands for :
Answer
B. Total Quality Management
32
“Management is the art of getting things done through others” – defined by :
Answer
C. Mary Parker Follet
33
Human Behaviour School was contributed by :
Answer
C. Elton Mayo
34
Which is not a factor of motivation?
Answer
C. Repetition Practice
35
Leadership quality does not include :
Answer
D. Being rich
36
Repeatedly used plans are called :
Answer
A. Standing Plans
37
Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in correct order :
Answer
A. Physiological, Safety, Love, Self Esteem, Self-actualisation
38
Induction is a process of :
Answer
D. All of the above
39
Controlling is backward looking function because :
Answer
C. Post-mortem analysis
40
Which theory on leadership that makes an assumption that all leadership qualities are
inherited?
Answer
A. Great Man Theory
41
Cross elasticity of demand between tea and coffee is :
Answer
A. Positive
42
Match the following :
Group
Answer
C. Responsiveness of demand to change
in price of related goods
(iv) Income elasticity of demand
43
A market situation in which there are only few sellers and each seller is able to influence the
market price is called :
Answer
C. Oligopoly
44
The combinations of two variable inputs that help a firm to produce a particular quantity of
output is known as :
Answer
B. Isoquants
45
Kinked demand curve explains :
Answer
A. Price rigidity
46
Which of the following are the assumptions of perfect competition?
Answer
D. All of these
47
Identify the situations in which law of demand does not apply :
Answer
D. All of these
48
Which of the basic properties belongs to indifference curve?
Answer
D. All of these
49
Negative income elasticity denote :
Answer
A. Inferior goods
50
Market with single seller and single buyer is called :
Answer
B. Bilateral monopoly
51
Which of the following persons can file a petition for winding up?
Answer
D. All of the above
52
The companies which are formed under Companies Act, 1956 are :
Answer
A. Registered Companies
53
When winding up takes place shareholders are described as :
Answer
A. Contributory
54
Minimum number of directors in a Private Company is :
Answer
B. Two
55
A meeting of the Board of Directors must be held at least once in :
Answer
C. Every three months
56
Extra ordinary general meetings may be convened by :
(i) Board of Directors on its own
(ii) Board of Directors on requisition
(iii) Requistionists
(iv) Company Law Board
Which of the above alternatives is correct?
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
57
Maximum number of members in case of a public company is :
Answer
D. No limit
58
Class meeting is a meeting of :
Answer
B. Meeting of shareholders
59
Private company can start its business immediately after the issue of :
Answer
B. Certificate of incorporation
60
Memorandum of Association should be in form —————— in case of a company limited by
shares.
Answer
A. Table B
61
When listed company makes public issue to raise additional capital it is :
Answer
A. FPO
62
An accounting tool used to record the value of an asset with respect to its current market
price :
Answer
A. Mark to Market
63
A market where gilt edged securities can be bought and sold is :
Answer
B. Government Securities market
64
Shares of companies that are relatively unaffected by the ups and downs in general
conditions :
Answer
B. Defensive shares
65
Oldest stock exchange in India :
Answer
A. Bombay stock exchange
66
Issue of shares to the existing share holders is :
Answer
A. Right issue
67
The process of holding the entire supply of a particular security with a view to dictating
terms is called :
Answer
D. Cornering
68
Prospectus which does not have details of price, number of shares or amount of issue :
Answer
A. Red herring prospectus
69
Government bond is :
Answer
B. Long term security
70
Speculators who neither buy nor sell securities in the market, but still trade on them are
called :
Answer
B. Stags
71
Which of the following statement is true for determining the residential status of person?
Answer
B. Stay should be in any one place in India
72
The HRA paid to an employee residing in Agra is exempt up to the lower of actual HRA,
excess of rent paid over 10% of salary or whichever is less :
Answer
A. 40% of salary
73
Capital gains on depreciable assets will always be :
Answer
A. Short-term Capital Gains
74
The deduction allowable in respect of family pension taxable under Income from Other
Sources is :
Answer
C. 33 13 % of the pension or Rs. 15,000 whichever is less
75
Income arising to a minor married daughter is :
Answer
B. to be clubbed with the income of that parent whose total income, before including
minor’s income is higher
76
A person is completely blind, he will avail deduction u/s 80 U :
Answer
D. Rs. 1,25,000
77
Under which section of the following a HUF is not entitled to a deduction from its gross total
income?
Answer
D. 80 P
78
The rate of Health and Education cess is :
Answer
C. 4%
79
What is the basic exemption limit for Mrs. X (resident in India) who is of the age of
80 years as on 31-3-2024?
Answer
A. Rs. 5,00,000
80
Income under the head Income from Other Sources is taxable on :
Answer
C. On the basis method of accounting regularly employed by the Assessee
81
The value of a brand expressed in terms of money called :
Answer
C. Brand Equity
82
Which of the following is a Pull strategy?
Answer
A. Consumer promotion
83
Market segmentation on the basis of customer enthusiasm :
Answer
C. Attitude segmentation
84
The purpose of Customer Relationship Management is to :
Answer
D. All of the above
099/2024 12 A
85
The method of inflating prices and offering a discount later :
Answer
B. Psychological discounting
86
Marketing technique used in the case of overfull demand :
Answer
A. De marketing
87
The classification of standardized products in to well classified groups known as :
Answer
D. Gradation
88
The demand of product and size of market expands in which stage of product Life Cycle?
Answer
B. Growth stage
89
The marketing channel used by “Tupperware” called :
Answer
A. Direct marketing channel
90
The promotion strategy that calls for the use of sales force and trade promotion through well
defined channels :
Answer
B. Push strategy
91
Which among the following is closely linked to risk acceptance?
Answer
C. Risk tolerance
92
The internal audit assessments which belong to specific governance process called :
Answer
A. Whistleblower process
93
The photograph of the auditee’s workplace taken by an internal auditor corresponds to which
type of evidence?
Answer
D. Physical evidence
A 13 099/2024
94
Which of the following is a type of audit sampling?
Answer
D. All of the above
95
The liabilities of an auditor can be :
Answer
C. Civil and criminal
96
The objective of vouching is to :
Answer
B. Verify the accuracy of transactions
97
An audit which is conducted throughout the year called :
Answer
A. Continuous audit
98
An auditor should be :
Answer
C. A watchdog
99
Which among the following factors are to be considered by the internal auditor while
applying analytical procedures?
Answer
D. All of the above
100
The process of financial audit begins with :
Answer
B. Planning
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.