| Post Name | Administrative Officer, Regional Manager |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 007/2026 |
| Category Code | 029/2020, 030/2020, 032/2020, 033/2020 |
| Date of Test | 28 January 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
For a Multi-State Co-operative Society, the method of recruitment, revise or regulate the
scale of pay and allowances to the officers are determined by :
Answer
C. The Bye-laws of the Multi-State Co-operative Society
2
Which of the following is/are correct about Kerala State Co-operative Agricultural and
Rural Development Bank?
(i) Act as the apex body for Primary Cooperative Agricultural and Rural Development
Banks in the state
(ii) Offers long-term loans for agricultural and rural development activities.
(iii) Raising funds from NABARD, issuing debentures/bonds, and securing government
guarantees
Answer
D. Both (i), (ii) and (iii)
3
Economies of scale in co-operation means :
Answer
B. Reduction in cost because goods are purchased and sold collectively
4
A social structure where all property is held in common is referred to as :
Answer
C. Communism
5
The purpose of limiting dividend payments in a co-operative society is primarily to :
Answer
A. Encourage reinvestment for member welfare
6
Registration of a partnership firm is :
Answer
C. Optional, but it affects the enforceability of legal rights
7
Which of the following was NOT an explicit principle of the Rochdale Pioneers but
emerged in later ICA statements?
Answer
A. Concern for community
8
Which of the following best explains the distinction between co-operative values and
co-operative principles?
Answer
B. Co-operative values represent the underlying beliefs and ethics, whereas
co-operative principles are the practical guidelines for applying those values
9
Constitutional recognition was granted to co-operative societies in India through the :
Answer
C. 97th Constitutional Amendment
10
The primary objective of integrating District Co-operative Banks into Kerala Bank was
to :
Answer
D. Strengthen capital base and efficiency
11
Which among the following is NOT a recommendation of the Maclagan Committee,
1915?
Answer
D. Nationalisation of major co-operative credit institutions
12
Which Five-Year Plan systematically emphasised the adoption of the co-operative
approach to address all aspects of community development?
Answer
A. First five-year plan
13
Which of the following is an example of an agricultural non-credit co-operative?
Answer
C. Co-operative Farming society
14
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) All non-agricultural co-operatives are non-credit institutions
(ii) Credit co-operatives may exist in both agricultural and non- agricultural sectors
(iii) Urban co-operative banks are examples of non-agricultural credit co-operatives
(iv) Credit co-operatives are restricted only to rural areas
Answer
D. (ii) and (iii)
15
The co-operative movement in Denmark is especially renowned for its :
Answer
B. Dairy Co-operatives
16
Which of the following best describes the difference between the co-operative movements
in England and Germany?
Answer
A. England focused on urban consumer co-operatives; Germany pioneered rural
credit co-operatives
17
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were primarily set up to :
Answer
D. None of the above
18
Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of NABARD?
Answer
C. NABARD supports both credit and non-credit aspects of rural development
19
The share capital of KSCARDB is contributed mainly by :
Answer
B. The State Government, Primary Co-operative Agricultural and Rural
Development Banks and members
20
According to the recommendations of the Royal Commission on Agriculture, rural credit
problems should be addressed mainly through :
Answer
C. Co-operative credit institutions
21
Which one of following is correct and complete statement in respect of Accounting Cycle?
(i) Accounting Cycle begins after identification of financial transactions
(ii) An accounting cycle is a complete sequence beginning with recording of
transactions and ending with the preparation of final accounts.
(iii) Sequential Steps involved in Accounting Cycle are Journalising-Posting-
Balancing- Trail Balance-Income Statement and Position Statement
(iv) Accounting Cycle systematically documents all business activities, converting raw
data into meaningful financial statements
Answer
D. All of the above
22
The following facts are related to the process of book keeping and accounting. Which one
of the following steps are only included in Book Keeping?
(i) Identifying the transactions and events
(ii) Measuring the identified transactions and events in Common Measuring Unit
(iii) Recording the identified and measured transactions and events in Proper books of
Accounts
(iv) Classifying the recorded transactions and events in the ledger.
(v) Summarising the classified transactions
Answer
B. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
23
The application of accounting techniques for providing information for the purpose of
planning, controlling and decision making is referred to as:
Answer
D. Management Accounting
007/2026 7 A
24
You are given the characteristics of Double entry system of book keeping. Which one of
the following is(are) not the correct characteristics of Double entry system of book
keeping?
(i) The account which receives the benefit is credited and the account which gives the
benefit is debited
(ii) Both Personal and impersonal aspects of transactions are recorded.
(iii) There is greater possibility of committing errors and mistakes as the system is
complex
(iv) As each transaction is recorded in books in two stages (journal and ledger) and two
sides
Answer
B. (i), (iii) and (iv) Only
25
Based on the following transactions, identify which of the following options are correct
and complete as per accounting equation?
Transaction Accounting Equation effect
(i) Purchased goods for cash – Deduct cash by Rs. 5000, Add to Creditors
Rs. 5000 and on credit Rs. 2000 and add stock by Rs. 3000
Rs. 2000
(ii) Sold goods for cash Rs. 4000 – Deduct cash Rs. 4000 and Deduct stock
costing Rs. 2400 Rs. 2400, increase capital by Rs. 1600
(iii) Rent paid Rs. 1000 and rent – Deduct Cash Rs. 1000, Deduct Outstanding
outstanding Rs. 200 rent Rs. 1000 and add Rs. 200 to Capital
Answer
D. None of the above
26
Which of the following expenses are debited to trading account?
(i) Wages paid for installation of asset
(ii) Carriage on sale of goods
(iii) Royalty (production basis)
(iv) Consumable Stores
Answer
B. (iii) Only
27
Assertion: Balance sheet is a summary of whole of the accounting record.
Reason: It is because nominal accounts are transferred to Revenue accounts and revenue
account is closed by shifting the balance to the balance sheet
Which of the option is correct?
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
Which of the following items are correct explanations as to capital and revenue?
(i) Rs.500 spent on repairing a second hand machine and Rs.25 paid on cartage. While
Rs.500 spent to repair is capital, Rs.25 paid on cartage is revenue expenditure.
(ii) Rs.1000 spent in raising temporary huts for the workers during the construction of
a factory building and Rs.40 on demolishing the huts. Both are capital expenditure.
(iii) Legal expenses incurred in an action for violation of trademark. Treat as capital
expenditure as related to maintenance of fixed asset.
Answer
A. (ii) Only
29
The following facts are related to registration of cooperative societies. Identify which of
the following is correct as to registration process of cooperative societies?
(i) The application shall be accompanied by 5 copies of proposed by Laws of society.
(ii) When all the applicants are individuals, the number of applicants must not be less
than twenty-five of such persons being a member of same or different family.
(iii) The registrar may accept registration after satisfying the conditions within 60 days
from the date of receipt of the application.
(iv) Where the registrar refuses to register a society, he shall communicate the order of
refusal together with reasons within 7 days to such of the applicants.
Answer
B. (iii) Only
30
With respect to amendment of bye laws of cooperative societies, identify facts conform to
cooperative societies Act and rules 1961:
(i) On receipt of application for amendment of bye law, office of registrar has to
adjudicate within a period of 90 days from the date of receipt of bye law.
(ii) Amendments to bye laws regarding share capital and share value duly registered
by registrar — validity can be challenged by any member on the ground of
procedural defects in holding meeting.
(iii) The bye laws of a cooperative society can be amended retrospectively to enable the
society to increase its share capital and regularize the admission of persons as
members of the society from the date of admission.
(iv) Merely because an amendment was approved by general body, that doesn’t bring
about an amendment to existing bye laws unless and until same is approved by
Registrar of Cooperative Societies and a certificate of registration is issued under
section 12(4).
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
You are required to identify the incorrect statement regarding admission of member of
cooperative society.
(i) Section 16 of the KCS act make it electable that it is for the Managing Committee
of the bank to take a final decision to grant or reject membership to an applicant.
(ii) Membership depend upon payments to society in respect of membership.
(iii) Where a person is refused admission as a member in society, the decision refusing
admission together with the reasons thereof shall be communicated by the society
to that person within a period of 7 days from the date of the decisions.
(iv) A member who has acted adversely to the interest of society may be expelled from
the society as per Sec 17, Rule 18 as per 2/3rd vote of general body convened for the
purpose.
Answer
Question Cancelled
32
Which of the following facts are correct with respect to duties and responsibilities of
authorities of cooperative society and auditor as to preparation and submission of audit
report?
(i) Within 3 months of completion of financial year, the financial statements and other
statutory statements as required by auditors shall be prepared by the chief
executive of the society and submit it before managing committee and the fact shall
be reported to director of cooperative audit.
(ii) It shall be the duty of the managing committee of every society to ensure the
accuracy of financial and other statutory statements.
(iii) The managing committee shall submit the financial statements and other statutory
statements for audit within one month of date of receipt of above statements.
(iv) Within three months from the date of receipt of the audit report, the director of
cooperative audit shall issue an audit certificate to the concerned society with a
copy of audit memorandum.
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Which of the following statements are as per provisions of Kerala Cooperative Societies
Act and Rules in respect of execution of awards, decree orders and decisions?
(i) No order shall be issued unless the member, past member or nominee or legal
representative of deceased member has been served with a notice of application if
he has not failed to pay the debt or outstanding debt within 45 days from the date
of such service.
(ii) No order shall be issued unless the member, past member or nominee or legal
representative of deceased member has been served with a notice of application if
he has not failed to pay the debt or outstanding debt within 30 days from the date
of such service
(iii) When the order is for recovery of money, it shall be executed according to law and
under the rules for the time being in force for the recovery of arrears of public
revenue due on land, application for such recovery shall be made to registrar
accompanied by a certificate signed by the Collector or by any person authorized by
him in this behalf.
(iv) When the order is for recovery of money, it shall be executed according to law and
under the rules for the time being in force for the recovery of arrears of public
revenue due on land, application for such recovery shall be made to Collector
accompanied by a certificate signed by the Registrar or by any person authorized
by him in this behalf
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv) only
34
Which one among the following is a committee on cooperation remarked that ‘Most of the
defects which we found in cooperative societies were due to lack of training both before
and after registration’?
Answer
A. Maclagan Committee 1915
35
Which of the following statements about cooperative education and training in India
is/are correct?
(i) The central committee for cooperative training was in charge of cooperative
training in India till July 1962
(ii) The responsibility of cooperative education and training was transferred from
central committee to NCUI as per recommendations of study team headed by
Swaminathan
(iii) NCCT was set up by NCUI to plan, administer and guide the training programme
in the country
(iv) NCCT is the outcome of recommendation of the SD Mishra committee on
Cooperative Training set up by Government of India
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) only
36
Which of the following is an example of a New Generation Private Bank in India?
Answer
C. ICICI Bank
37
Industrial banks mainly provide :
Answer
B. Long-term finance to industries
38
Which of the following function cannot be carried out by a payment bank?
Answer
C. Provision of credit
39
What is the minimum paid up capital for a small finance bank in India?
Answer
A. Rs. 200 Crore
40
The CTS system in banking is related to which of the following?
Answer
B. Cheque Truncation System for clearing cheques
41
Who can file a complaint with the Banking Ombudsman?
Answer
A. Any individual customer of a bank
42
Which regulatory body oversees the G-Sec market in India?
Answer
B. Reserve Bank of India
43
Which of the following is not qualifying as an open/closed Prepaid Payment Instrument
(PPI)?
Answer
A. Overdraft
44
What type of transaction would typically be conducted using NEFT?
Answer
B. Deferred payment transactions
45
What does UPI-Pay Now Linkage facilitate?
Answer
A. Cross-border payments between India and Singapore
46
The concept of OPC was introduced in India by:
Answer
D. Companies Act 2013
47
The first clause in the MOA:
Answer
D. Name clause
007/2026 13 A
48
‘Turquand Rule’ is otherwise Known as:
Answer
B. Doctrine of Indoor Management
49
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to prospectus?
(i) Is a circular or newspaper advertisement
(ii) Published by promoters after the formation of a company
(iii) Document inviting deposit from the public
(iv) Issued by a private company for raising capital
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
50
Statutory meeting is not compulsory for:
Answer
D. All of these
51
A contract where both parties to the contract have still to perform their respective
obligation is:
Answer
D. Executory Contract
52
‘Quid-pro-quo’ stands for:
Answer
A. Consideration
53
A finder of goods is entitled to the possession of goods as against everyone except the:
Answer
A. True owner
54
The number of contracts in a contract of guarantee is:
Answer
C. Three
55
Substitution of a new contract for the existing one is:
Answer
B. Novation
56
Great India Ltd. has current liabilities of Rs.2,00,000 and a current ratio of 3 : 1.
How much shall be its current assets?
Answer
C. 6,00,000/-
57
A company is considering the purchase of a machine costing Rs.1,00,000. The machine is
expected to generate net annual cash inflows of Rs.25,000 for the next 8 years. What is
the payback period for investing in this machine?
Answer
D. 4 years
58
Capital rationing occurs in a firm when:
Answer
C. The firm faces a constraint on the availability of funds
59
A dividend paid by a company is:
Answer
B. The share of divisible profits distributed to shareholders
60
What is the optimum dividend pay-out ratio when r = 18% and Kₑ = 12%? (r is internal rate of return and Kₑ is cost of equity.)
Answer
C. 0%
61
According to the Net Income (NI) Approach, the value of a firm can be maximized by:
Answer
B. Increasing the proportion of debt in the capital structure
62
Weighted Average Cost of Capital represents:
Answer
C. Overall cost of capital of a firm, weighted by the proportion of each source of
finance
63
The concept of Time Value of Money states that:
Answer
B. A unit of money received today is worth more than a unit of money received
in the future
64
The cost of equity represents:
Answer
B. The return expected by equity shareholders on their investment in the firm
65
According to the risk-return relationship, an investor expects:
Answer
B. Higher returns for higher risk
66
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is used to determine:
Answer
B. The optimal order quantity that minimizes total inventory costs, by balancing
the holding and ordering cost of inventory.
67
Efficiency ratios are used to measure:
Answer
A. How well a firm utilizes its assets to generate sales
68
A common size financial statement is one where:
Answer
B. Each item is expressed as a percentage of a base figure, such as total sales or
total assets
69
In simple regression used for linear forecasting, the dependent variable is:
Answer
B. The variable that is being forecasted or explained
70
The primary objective of receivables management is to:
Answer
C. Ensure timely collection of credit sales while maintaining good customer
relations
71
A new café hires staff but is unsure what tasks each role should perform. The manager
wants a document listing duties and responsibilities of each job. Which document is most
appropriate?
Answer
C. Job description
72
A firm wants to reward employees based on the number of units they produce rather
than the hours worked.
Which wage system fits this situation?
Answer
D. Piece rate system
73
A company hires new engineers at salaries close to what senior engineers currently earn.
This situation is best described as :
Answer
D. Pay Compression
74
The relative worth of a job is known as :
Answer
C. Job evaluation
75
BARS stands for:
Answer
B. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale
76
Which performance appraisal method aligns employee goals with the organizational
strategic plan?
Answer
A. MBO
77
For training on crisis decision-making in oil rigs, the most valid method would be :
Answer
B. Simulation with scenario-based drills
78
Moonlighting refers to :
Answer
C. Holding a second job outside regular working hours
79
HR Analytics primarily helps organisations to :
Answer
B. Make data-driven HR decisions
80
Markov analysis is primarily used in HRM for :
Answer
D. Predicting employee movement across job categories
81
If a company needs 5 hires and has a 20% selection ratio, how many candidates must be
interviewed?
Answer
C. 25
82
Which is the correct order of dispute settlement?
Answer
B. Conciliation → Arbitration → Adjudication
83
Stress caused by positive experiences is called :
Answer
A. Eustress
84
The geocentric staffing approach focuses on :
Answer
C. Hiring the best talent globally irrespective of nationality
85
Which of the following best differentiates job enrichment from enlargement?
Answer
A. Job enrichment adds autonomy; job enlargement adds similar tasks
86
Identify the correct option among the following:
(i) According to Ivor Jennings, Administrative Law is the law relating to
administration
(ii) According to MP Jain, Administrative Law is the law relating to control of
governmental power
(iii) According to KC Davis, Administrative law concerns powers and procedures of
administrative agencies including especially law governing judicial review of
administrative action
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) are correct
87
Find out the correct answer :
(i) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation was applied in Schmidt v. Secy of State (1969)
1 All ER 904
(ii) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation applies to both Legislative actions and
Administrative actions
(iii) Decisions of Administrative authorities affecting Legitimate Expectation are
subject to judicial review
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) are correct
88
Which of the following will not come under permissible delegation?
Answer
C. Repeal of law
89
In Rammanohar Lohia v. State of Bihar
Answer
D. Irrelevant considerations
90
The principle ‘audi alteram partem’ was applied in which of the following cases?
(i) Ridge v. Baldwin
(ii) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(iii) Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
91
Which of the following option is correct?
(i) Administrative Tribunals have statutory origin
(ii) Administrative Tribunals possesses powers of court with regard to procedural
matters
(iii) No Writ lie against decisions of Administrative Tribunals
(iv) Administrative Tribunals are not bound by strict rules of evidence and procedures
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
92
Find out the correct answer
(i) Mandamus
Answer
A. Error apparent on face of record
(ii) Certiorari
93
Which of the following was applied in State of West Bengal v. BK Mondal
Answer
C. Quasi Contractual Liability of the State
94
Grounds for rejection to access of information under section 9 of Right to Information Act
2005 pertains to infringement of __________ subsisting in a person
other than state.
Answer
B. Copyright
95
Chairperson or Members of Lokpal shall not be :
(i) Members of Parliament or Members of Legislative Assemblies of State or
Union Territories
(ii) Persons less than 45 years on the date of assuming office
(iii) Members of Panchayats or Municipalities
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
96
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Tax is a compulsory payment and refusal to pay tax is a punishable offence.
(ii) Tax payers can claim immediate benefit against the amount paid by them.
(iii) Tax is a payment for an indirect service to be rendered by the government to the
community.
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
97
Which statement is true about Direct Tax?
Answer
B. There is no shifting of tax burden
98
CBDT
Answer
B. Finance
99
GST is destination based tax. Which of the following statement best explains this?
Answer
A. Tax will be payable in the state in which goods and services are finally
consumed
100
Who is the Chairperson of the GST Council?
Answer
C. Union Finance Minister
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.