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Kerala PSC Agricultural Officer (SR for SC/ST) – Agriculture Development and Farmers Welfare Previous Question Paper – 079/2022/OL

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Post NameAgricultural Officer (SR for SC/ST) - Agriculture Development and Farmers Welfare
Question Paper Code079/2022/OL
Category Code031/2022
Date of Test28 September 2022
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
The soil water potential at field capacity is
Answer
B. -33kpa
2
The element that is involved in the reduction of nitrate to nitrite is
Answer
C. Molybdenum
3
Hypogeal mode of germination is seen in
Answer
B. Red gram
4
Zinc deficiency in rice is known as
Answer
D. Khaira disease
5
Fimbristylis miliacea is a _________ weed of rice.
Answer
B. sedge
6
The irrigation requirement (IR) of the cropped area is _______ if; WR is the water requirement, EP is the effective precipitation and S is the soil profile moisture.
Answer
A. IR=WR-(EP+S)
7
Pegging is associated with which of the following crop?
Answer
C. Groundnut
8
The female parent of hybrid napier is
Answer
A. Bajra
9
An example for preemergent herbicide is
Answer
D. oxyflurofen
10
Calcium carbonate equivalency value is higher for
Answer
B. Quicklime
11
Statement 1: Stimulation occurs when a high level of a nutrient increases plant demand for another nutrient. Statement 2: Increased nitrogen application and uptake creates a demand for more magnesium.
Answer
B. Both Statements are correct
12
Statement 1: Many chemical and biological reactions occur at the colloid solid-liquid interfaces. Statement 2: Adsorption takes place at the interface.
Answer
B. Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong
13
Statement 1: Carbohydrates are the third most abundant component of humus. Statement 2: The carbohydrate concentration has been estimated to 30% in soil humus.
Answer
C. Both Statements are wrong
14
Statement 1: Urease is an example of an induced enzyme. Statement 2: Cellulase is an example of a constitutive enzyme.
Answer
D. Both Statements are wrong
15
Assertion: Cation Exchange and base exchange both are different. Reason: The reaction involves 𝐻 +𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠 .
Answer
A. Assertion and Reason both are correct
16
Assertion A: Barium is strongly adsorbed by the clay but appears to have low penetrating power. Reason R: It exchange is less than would be expected from the amount of Ba adsorbed.
Answer
B. Assertion and Reason both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
17
Assertion A: Transition metals like Al, Fe, Mn, Cu and Zn and the organic compounds forms metal-organo complexes or chelates. Reason R: Humic and fulvic acids are especially important in the formation of such complexes.
Answer
D. Assertion and reason both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
18
Rank the following moisture regimes below from driest to wettest
Answer
C. Xeric, udic, aquic
19
Immobilization of sulphur occur in soil when C:S ratio is
Answer
C. >400:1
20
Match the following: I. Dris a. Mehlich II. EPP b. Beaufils III. 1% Citric Acid c. Ramamoorthy IV. Complimentary ion principle d. Dyer
Answer
A. I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
21
Recently invaded insect that threatened maize cultivation in India is
Answer
A. Spodoptera frugiferda
22
Calasobruchus chinensis is a pest on pulses in
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
23
Recently discovered new insect order is
Answer
A. Mantophasmatodea
24
Who decoded the dance language of honey bees?
Answer
A. Karl Van Frish
25
LD 50 values for oral toxicity of less toxic green molecules of insecticides is
Answer
D. >5000
26
Anamorphic development is found in the order
Answer
B. Protura
27
Bunchy top appearance and red coloured leaf mines near the midribs of sugarcane leaves is damage due to
Answer
D. Chilo sacchariphagus indicus
28
The Act it regulates imports, manufacture, storage, transport, sale, distribution and use of insecticides
Answer
C. Insecticide Act 1968
29
Juvenile Harmone is secreted by
Answer
A. Carpora Allata
30
Downward curling and tapering of leaves in chilli crop is due to feeding of
Answer
B. Polyphagotarsonemus latus
31
Dissemination of urediospores is mainly through
Answer
B. Wind
32
Albugo candida is an
Answer
D. Obligate parasite
33
Coconut cadang cadang disease is caused by
Answer
A. Viroid
34
_______ present in the debris in the soil serve as the primary inoculum for grape vine downy mildew pathogen.
Answer
C. Oospore
35
According to Koshy (1999) root wilt disease of coconut is of national importance as the disease causes an annual loss of _______ million coconuts in Kerala.
Answer
A. 968
36
The foul smell caused by ________ a volatile compound is a good indication of wheat hill bunt infection in the field.
Answer
C. Trimethylamine
37
Growing cotton with sorghum or Phaseolus aconitifolius as intercrop reduced ______ disease.
Answer
D. Root rot
38
_______ is a most important vector of the Pantoea Stewartii (Stewart's wilt of corn)
Answer
B. Chaetocnema pulicaria
39
Empty root of cassava is caused by
Answer
C. Laticifer-restricted trypanosomatid
40
The rice blast pathogen produces _____ toxin.
Answer
A. 𝛼- picolinic acid
41
Complete dominance in the traits governed by two genes would result in phenotypic ratio of
Answer
B. 9:3:3:1
42
Frame shift mutation is caused by which of the following mutagens?
Answer
B. Acridine dyes
43
In polygenic inheritance, which of the following statements are correct? (i) Equal effect can be produced by the genes involved in the expression of a character (ii) Epistasis and linkage is observed (iii) It possesses lack of dominance (iv) Each allele in the genes have additive effect
Answer
D. i, iii and iv
44
The criteria for the population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Answer
A. Random mating
45
Distant hybridization refers to
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
46
The mechanism of non preference mode of resistance to insects exhibited by the host plant is called as
Answer
A. Anti xenosis
47
The genetic male sterility system of hybrid seed production is popularly adopted in which of the following crop?
Answer
C. Pigeon Pea
48
Which of the following in-vitro method adopted for the production of secondary metabolites?
Answer
C. Cell suspension culture
49
The major criteria by which the synthetics and composites differs is
Answer
A. testing for combining ability
50
A name or sign used on certain products or which corresponds to a specific location or origin
Answer
C. Geographical Indication
51
The Section 8 of the Indian Seed Act 1966 is deals with
Answer
C. Seed Certification Agency
52
Which of the following seed extraction method is best for control of bacterial canker disease in the tomato?
Answer
B. Fermentation method
53
Which of the following Statement is/are correct about ground nut seed production operations? (i) Gypsum application increases peg penetration and pod formation (ii) Self-pollinated crop and stigma remains enclosed in the keel petal (iii) Darken plumel is noticed due to calcium deficiency
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
54
The Andromonoecious flower in cucurbits means
Answer
B. Staminate and Hermaphrodite flowers produced separately in the same plant
55
According to Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards, the minimum germination percentage should be maintained for bhendi seed certification
Answer
C. 65%
56
Which of the following Statement is wrong about Seed Bill 2004?
Answer
B. Seed Bill, 2004 is replaced the earlier Seed Control Order, 1983
57
The seed lot A of 400 kg seeds with 70% germination and lot B seeds with 85% germination. How much of lot B seeds must be blended with lot A to get seed lot with germination of 80%?
Answer
A. 800 kg
58
The leaves and pods of the following seed growing crop is coated with thin film of Malic acid and Oxalic acid
Answer
B. Cicer arietinum
59
Match the list I with list II: List I List II i. Aerial seeding 1. Slurry comprising seed mulch and fertilizer ii. Hydro seeding 2. Impregnation of seeds with bioactive chemicals iii. Fluid drilling 3. Pre germinated seed suspension in viscous gel iv. Seed infusion 4. Broadcasting pre imbibed seeds from air craft
Answer
D. i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
60
In brinjal cultivars maximum seed set can be obtained in i. Short style flowers ii. Medium style flowers iii. Long style flowers iv. Pseudo style flowers Choose the correct answer
Answer
B. Both (ii and iii)
61
National Research Centre on citrus is located at
Answer
B. Nagpur
62
Parentage of Amrapali
Answer
B. Dashehari × Neelum
63
A seedless mandarin variety suitable for segment canning
Answer
B. N4
64
A plant growth hormone applied for reducing mango malformation
Answer
A. NAA 200ppm
65
Most important fruit crop of Kerala
Answer
C. Banana
66
Commercial method of propagation in mango
Answer
A. Epicotyl grafting
67
Commercial method of propagation in guava
Answer
B. Air layering
68
Most popular training system adopted in grapes
Answer
B. Bower system
69
Hen and chicken is due to the deficiency of
Answer
C. Boron
70
Artocarpus Heterophyllus is native to
Answer
A. India
71
Queen of fruits
Answer
D. Mangosteen
72
Edible part in pomegranate
Answer
D. Aril
73
Vitamin C content in Amla/Aonla (mg/100g)
Answer
C. 500
74
Cox's Oragne is variety of
Answer
A. Mandarine orange
75
Cold treatment applied to apple seeds for germination is known
Answer
C. Stratification
76
Anti-nutrient present in the Brassica group of vegetables
Answer
B. Thio glucosides
77
Most ancient type of vegetable garden
Answer
A. Kitchen garden
78
Photosensitive variety of cowpea
Answer
D. Kanakamony
79
Blossom end rot in tomato fruit is associated with the deficiency of
Answer
C. Calcium
80
Best season for cultivation of all vegetables in Kerala
Answer
A. September to March
81
The downward sloping demand curve is based on which of the following law?
Answer
C. Law of diminishing marginal utility
82
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Minimum Support Price? (i) It is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices and announced by the Government of India. (ii) It is recommended and announced by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices. (iii) It is announced before the sowing season. (iv) It is recommended by the Government of India and announced by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
83
In which type of market segmentation, the buyers are divided into different groups on the basis of personality traits, lifestyle or values?
Answer
C. Psychographic segmentation
84
Which of the following is a facilitative function in marketing?
Answer
B. Standardisation
85
Which of the following statement/statements about the relationship between marketed surplus and marketable surplus is/are correct? (i) Marketed surplus is greater than marketable surplus. (ii) Marketed surplus is less than marketable surplus. (iii) Marketed surplus is equal to marketable surplus.
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
86
The minimum of the average variable cost is known as the
Answer
D. Shut down point
87
Which one of the following market structures has product differentiation as the most important characteristic feature?
Answer
D. Monopolistic competition
88
An increase in price of a commodity, holding everything else constant, results in,
Answer
C. A contraction of demand
89
The pricing strategy in which the initial prices are kept high and are slowly lowered over time to extract maximum profits from customers who are less price sensitive is called as
Answer
A. Market skimming pricing
90
The demand for agricultural inputs like fertilizers or pesticides is known as
Answer
B. Derived demand
91
Which of the following is not a step of Extension programme planning?
Answer
C. Goal fixation
92
Function of Extension management includes which of the following?
Answer
B. Good Organizing
93
Need for introducing High Yielding Variety Programme (HYVP) was felt due to limitation of which programme?
Answer
D. Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP)
94
Which is the major dissimilarity between Community Development Programme and Extension Education?
Answer
B. Individual approach
95
In Extension Programme planning 'Establishment of relationship' is focused on which function?
Answer
A. Organising
96
Evaluation carried out by the agency responsible for the planning and implementation of the programme is known as
Answer
C. Internal evaluation
97
Conflict between groups due to psychological differences is known as
Answer
D. Racial conflict
98
'Method demonstration' is which method of communication?
Answer
C. Group communication
99
Faithful performance of all the element of communication is called?
Answer
B. Fidelity
100
Which type of entrepreneurs prefer to continue in the same venture by transforming themselves to fit the changing demands?
Answer
A. Managerial entrepreneur

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