| Post Name | Archaeological Chemist - Archaeology |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 044/2022 |
| Category Code | 131/2020 |
| Date of Test | 26 April 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The residual molar entropy of crystalline CO at absolute zero is:
Answer
A. R ln 2
2
The rate constants of a reaction at 100K and 200K are 0.02 s⁻¹ and 0.2 s⁻¹. What will be the value of activation energy, Ea of this reaction?
Answer
C. 4.606 R × 10²
3
Using molecular orbital theory the bond order of O₂⁻ ion is found to be:
Answer
Question Cancelled
4
Which among the following is not an example for liquid crystal?
Answer
B. Ethyl benzoate
5
For a particle in one dimensional box, the difference in energy between energy levels n = 3 and n = 2 was found to be 15 units. What will be the difference in energy for the levels n = 2 and n = 1 for this system :
Answer
B. 9
6
Zinc oxide exists as a white coloured substance at room temperature. On heating it turns yellow due to:
Answer
C. Metal excess defect
7
A character table of C₂h point group contains a one dimensional representation which is symmetric to the principal rotation axis and antisymmetric with respect to the centre of inversion, i. What Mullikan symbol should be assigned to the representation?
Answer
D. Aᵤ
8
Which among the following is not a molecular mechanics force field?
Answer
D. PM3
9
Select the correct statement regarding Langmuir adsorption isotherm :
Answer
B. Adsorption sites are equivalent and the surface is uniform
10
The normalized wave functions ψ₁ and ψ₂ of the sp hybrid orbitals formed by the combination of one 2s and one 2p orbital are:
Answer
A. ψ₁ = (1/√2)[ψ₂s + ψ₂p], ψ₂ = (1/√2)[ψ₂s − ψ₂p]
11
On mixing dilute AgNO3 solution with dilute NaI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol of AgI was obtained. Select the appropriate condition for the formation of this sol :
Answer
A. Addition of AgNO3 to slight excess of NaI
12
The entropy change involved when volume of 1 mol of any perfect gas is tripled at constant temperature is :
Answer
A. 2.303 R log 3
13
The rate of an enzyme catalysed reaction [E] + [S] → [ES] is obtained by Michaelis-Menten equation. If the concentration of the substrate [S] is very small when compared to the Michaelis constant K_M, the rate of the reaction will be:
Answer
D. Both (A) and (C)
14
Using Debye Huckel Onsagar equation deduce the factor responsible for increasing the conductance ratio of a strong electrolyte :
Answer
A. decreasing concentration
15
ESR spectra of benzene radical anion gives :
Answer
C. septet lines
16
The number of degrees of freedom at the eutectic point of a two component system is :
Answer
B. 0
17
The source of error encountered in ab-initio calculations include :
Answer
D. All of the above
18
Among the following symmetry elements, the element absent in trans-dichloroethylene is :
Answer
B. vertical plane of symmetry, σ v
19
The rotational spectrum of rigid diatomic molecule consists of lines which are equally spaced. If B is the rotational constant the spacing between the lines is equal to:
Answer
A. 2B
20
The angular momentum operator, L̂x is:
Answer
A. −i(h/2π)(y∂/∂z − z∂/∂y)
21
The factor which affects the diffusion current in polarography is :
Answer
D. all of these
22
The reducible representation of the hybrid orbitals of a molecule belonging to C₂v point group was found to be 2A₁ + B₁ + B₂. From the character table given below, predict the hybridization of the molecule: [character table: C₂v; A₁, A₂, B₁ and B₂ representations]
Answer
C. sp³
23
The following pair of compounds are: [figure: two stereochemical wedge-and-dash structures of 2,3-dichlorobutane, each with CH₃, H and Cl substituents]
Answer
C. Enantiomers
24
Which of the following is the most reactive towards substitution by S_N1 mechanism?
Answer
C. 1-chloro-1-(4-methoxyphenyl)ethane
25
Which of the options shows the same compound as the following? [reference figure: chiral 2-aminobutane with NH₂ on a solid wedge, H on a hashed wedge, CH₃ above and ethyl to the right]
Answer
A. 2-aminobutane: NH₂ on solid wedge up, ethyl left, methyl right
26
Which of the following statements is not correct for alkyl halide?
Answer
D. In most unimolecular reactions of alkyl halide E1 reaction is favored over S_N1 reaction
27
Which of the following is most acidic?
Answer
B. p-Fluorophenol (4-fluorophenol)
28
Which of the following is the intermediate in Wolff’s reaction?
Answer
A. Ketene
29
Which among the options can function as ‘X’ in the following reaction? [reaction figure: a ketoxime R¹R²C=NOH is converted to the amide R¹CONHR²]
Answer
D. Any of the above
30
Which of the following ester is most reactive towards alkaline hydrolysis?
Answer
B. O₂NCH₂COOEt
31
Which among the following is most basic?
Answer
B. C₆H₅CH₂NH₂
32
Which is the highest energy conformation of cyclohexane?
Answer
C. Half-chair
33
Which among the following is not aromatic?
Answer
C. Seven-membered conjugated carbocyclic anion structural formula
34
Which of the following will be correct if a reaction going in 80% enantiomeric excess?
Answer
C. The product contains 90% R enantiomer and 10% S enantiomer
35
Choose the major product of the following reaction: [figure: heat-induced cycloaddition of a dimethyl-substituted conjugated diene with dimethyl maleate]
Answer
B. Cyclohexene product: both CH₃ solid; upper-right COOCH₃ solid, lower-right COOCH₃ hashed
36
Which of the following is an electrocyclic reaction?
Answer
A. Ring opening of a dicyano-substituted cyclobutene to a dicyano-substituted conjugated diene
37
HOMO for hexa-1,3,5-triene under photochemical condition is:
Answer
C. ψ₄
38
Which of the following is the application of ion exchange chromatography?
Answer
C. Both (A) and (B)
39
Which is the correct order of increasing wave number of the stretching vibrations of (1) C-H (alkane), (2) C-H (alkene), (3) C-H (alkyne), and (4) C-H (Arene)?
Answer
A. (1) < (4) ≈ (2) < (3)
40
Which among the following shows carbonyl stretching frequency at 1715 cm⁻¹?
Answer
B. Cyclohexanone structural formula
41
Nuclei having both atomic number and mass number even have ____________ spin.
Answer
C. Zero spin
42
Which of the following has three types of hydrogens in the following compounds?
Answer
D. All the above
43
Identify the reaction: [reaction figure: two substituted aryl iodide molecules react with 2Cu to form a biaryl and 2CuI]
Answer
D. Ullmann reaction
44
Fmoc is :
Answer
C. 9-fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl
45
The precursor of lanosterol is:
Answer
C. Squalene
46
In maltose, the glucose units are connected through :
Answer
B. α (1 → 4 ) glycosidic bond
47
Which of the following is not an organometallic compound?
Answer
C. (CH₃COO)₂Pb
48
Zerevitinov method is used to estimate the number of which group in organic compound?
Answer
D. All of these
49
Grignard reagent does not react with the following functional group :
Answer
B. > C = C <
50
Organo zinc compounds are involved in the reaction :
Answer
A. Reformatsky reaction
51
Which is the organometallic compound capable of adding on to a Carbon-Carbon Double bond is :
Answer
C. R Li
52
Which of the following does not have an α , β unsaturated Carbonyl group?
Answer
A. Androsterone
53
Which of the following acts as a quenching gas in Geiger Muller Counter?
Answer
D. Alcohol
54
Which of the following material is used as the insulation between inner and outer electrodes of the ion Chamber?
Answer
B. Polytetrafluoroethylene
55
Liquid samples must be counted using ionisation Chamber by placing them in which of the following?
Answer
C. Ampoules
56
Neutron activation analysis is used to estimate the amount of an element in samples of :
Answer
D. All of these
57
Which of the following acting as an Usanovich acid?
Answer
D. Sb₂S₅
58
____________ is an amphoteric solvent.
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
Which Physical property is not used in thermal methods of analysis of the samples?
Answer
D. Pressure
60
Among the isopoly anions of V⁵⁺, Nb⁵⁺, Ta⁵⁺, Cr⁶⁺, Mo⁶⁺ and W⁶⁺, only ____________ is found to have tetrahedral MO₄²⁻ units joined through the corner.
Answer
B. Cr⁶⁺
61
Assume the accepted value to be 1.45, which of the following options correctly describes the students experimental data? Trial 1 measurement 1.29, Trial 2 measurement 1.93, Trial 3 measurement 0.88 :
Answer
D. Neither accurate nor precise
62
In Mohr’s method, if acidic solution is used :
Answer
A. Chromate ions are decreased
63
Which one of the following do not have a permanent dipole?
Answer
C. CS₂
64
Which is the reason for Fe₂(CO)₉ being diamagnetic?
Answer
C. Metal-Metal (Fe-Fe) bond in molecule
65
Geometrical isomerism is exhibited by:
Answer
A. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
66
The degree of ____________ between the metal ion and the ligand directly influences the stability of the complex in solution.
Answer
A. Association
67
Actinides have higher tendancy to form complexes than lanthanides, due to :
Answer
B. Higher charge and smaller size
68
____________ is a Z dimensional nanomaterial.
Answer
Question Cancelled
69
Reaction with CH₃CN with CH₃MgI excess will finally result in the formation of:
Answer
D. (CH₃)₃COH
70
Which of the following is an example of top down approach of synthesis of the nanomaterials?
Answer
D. None of these
71
Nanosized polymer built from branched units are called :
Answer
A. Dendrimers
72
Regarding nanomaterials, consider the following statements : (1) They have reduced imperfection compared to the bulk material (2) They are used in fuel cells (3) They have high surface energy (4) They have a large fraction of surface atoms Out of these statements
Answer
A. (1), (2), (3), (4) are correct
73
Nanoscale titanium Oxide increases the :
Answer
Question Cancelled
74
The green synthesis methods should have :
Answer
B. High efficiency
75
In green Chemistry, we must use feed stock derived from annually renewable resources or from :
Answer
D. Abundant wastes
76
An ideal solvent facilitates the :
Answer
B. Mass transfer
77
IUPAC name of repeating unit of crown ethers is :
Answer
A. Ethyleneoxy
78
Which of the following statements is not true about Cyclodextrins?
Answer
C. They are useful for formulating hydrophilic APIs
79
____________ are macropolycyclic poly aza – poly ethers.
Answer
B. Cryptands
80
A Calixarene is a cyclic oligomer based on a methylene-linked :
Answer
B. Phenols
81
Read the following literary works in Malayalam. Select the book not written by Lalithambika Antharjanam :
Answer
C. Ambalamani
82
Choose the correct pairs: 1. Kumaran Asan—(a) Nair Service Society; 2. K. Kelappan—(b) Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam; 3. Swami Vagbhatananda—(c) Sudharma Suryodaya Sabha; 4. Pandit K.P. Karuppan—(d) Athma Vidhya Sangam
Answer
C. 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c)
83
Choose the correctly matched Biography :
Answer
D. Ormmayude Olangalil – G. Sankara Kuruppu
84
Who among the following is not a winner of Jyan Preed Puraskar?
Answer
A. Vaikom Muhammed Basheer
85
Choose leader associated with Ezhava Memorial?
Answer
B. Dr. Palpu
86
Assertion : The Election and Electoral College for the President of India is same as that of the Vice President of India. Reason (R) : Vice President of India is the highest dignitary of India next after the President.
Answer
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
87
Assertion : In a parliamentary democracy the President cannot function without the aid and advice of the cabinet Headed by the Prime Minister. Reason (R) : Parliamentary system of government represents the whole Nation.
Answer
B. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason given is not the correct explanation of Assertion
88
Assertion : ‘Preventive Detention’ is included in the chapter on Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution. Reason (R) : Preventive Detention without trial can subsist only as long as the legislature permits.
Answer
B. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason given is not the correct explanation of Assertion
89
Assertion : The people of India enjoy the Fundamental Rights of Equality, Liberty Religion and Right to Education and Culture. Reason (R) : The Judiciary cannot enforce the state to implement fundamental rights.
Answer
C. Assertion is true but reason is false
90
Assertion : The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is 5 years but it may be dissolved earlier by the president of India. Reason (R) : The Parliament shall meet at least once a year and the interval between two consecutive sessions shall be 5 months.
Answer
C. Assertion is true but reason is false
91
Assertion : Article 312 of the constitution provides that any proposal to create an All India Service should finanate from the Council of States ( Rajya Sabha) Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha is the upper chamber of the Parliament.
Answer
B. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason given is not the correct explanation of Assertion
92
Assertion : No minimum age is prescribed for the appointment as a judge of the supreme court. Reason (R) : The original jurisdiction of the supreme court is mentioned in article 149 of the Constitution.
Answer
C. Assertion is true but reason is false
93
Assertion : The President of India can declare National Emergency under article 352 of the Indian Constitution due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion. Reason (R) : National Emergency is imposed in India in 1962, 1971, 1975 and in 1999.
Answer
C. Assertion is true but reason is false
94
Assertion : The Governor consults High Court and Public Service Commission before posting District judges in the judicial service of the state. Reason (R) : Direct control over district courts are vested in the supreme court.
Answer
C. Assertion is true but reason is false
95
Assertion : Amendment procedure of Indian constitution is mentioned in Article 362 of the constitution. Reason (R) : There are three methods for the Amendment of the Indian Constitution.
Answer
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
96
Assertion : The Right to Information Bill was passed by the Parliament of India on 15th June 2005 and came into force with effect from 12th October 2005. Reason (R) : Offices of the Governors and Chief Ministers of states are not legally obliged under the RTI Act.
Answer
B. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason given is not the correct explanation of Assertion
97
Which of the following statement about the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian constitute is not correct?
Answer
C. Fundamental duties can be enforced through the writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of the constitution
98
Find out the correct sequence in which the given terms are mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution :
Answer
B. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
99
Find out the extremists in the Indian National Movement: (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak; (b) Lala Lajpat Rai; (c) Bipin Chandra Pal; (d) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
Answer
A. (a), (b) and (c)
100
The Ministry of Urban Development under swachh Bharat Abhiyan scheme rated cleanest cities in India (Cities above 1 million population) in 2021. Write the sequential order (top to bottom) of the cleanest cities as per the survey conducted by the Central pollution control board:
Answer
C. Indore, Surat, Vijayawada, Navi Mumbai
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.