| Post Name | ASSISTANT DENTAL SURGEON-(NCA- OX) |
|---|---|
| Department | IMS/ HEALTH SERVICES |
| Question Paper Code | 119/2017 |
| Date of Test | 12 October 2017 |
| Medium of Question | English |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which article of Indian constitution deals with ‘General Election’ ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
2
Who is the Hajj affairs minister of Kerala ?
Answer
B. K.T. Jaleel
3
Which is the Headquarters of Calicut University ?
Answer
D. Tenhippalam
4
Who is the first Keralite Oscar winner ?
Answer
C. Rasool Pukkutty
5
Dum Dum Airport of Kolkotta is renamed as __________
Answer
C. Subash Chandra Bose Airport
6
‘Upanishads’ generally deals with __________
Answer
A. Philosophy
7
‘Yasoda’ was the __________ of Buddha
Answer
D. Wife
8
Which of the following was the centre of Sangam literature ?
Answer
B. Madurai
9
Gandhiji’s first involvement in Indian political affairs was in __________
Answer
B. Anti - Rowlatt Act Campaign
10
Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was at __________
Answer
A. Payyannur
11
Who was elected as the President of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 as a representative of Swarajist party ?
Answer
B. Vithal Bai Patel
12
How many persons signed in ‘Malayali Memorial’ of 1891 ?
Answer
D. 10028
13
The first railway line in Kerala runs between __________
Answer
A. Bepore and Tirur
14
Who among the following is not a member of Cabinet Mission ?
Answer
D. Jhon Simon
15
Gandhi - Irwin Pact was in __________
Answer
B. 1931
16
Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ ?
Answer
C. Deenbandhu Mitra
17
Which one of the following was not the aim of Non-Co-operation Movement ?
Answer
A. Attainment of Complete Independence
18
Who among the following is not the leader of Khilafath Movement ?
Answer
D. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
19
Who was the leader of ‘Pookottur war’ which occurred during Malabar Rebellion of 1921 ?
Answer
B. Vadakkeveettil Mohamed
20
Which one of the following was not the feature of India Act of 1935 ?
Answer
C. Provincial Dyarchy
21
Sphenomandibular ligament is a remnant of
Answer
A. 1st Pharyngeal arch
22
Secretomotor innervation of parotid gland is derived from
Answer
B. Inferior salivatory nucleus
23
Which of the following muscles of tongue is NOT supplied by hypoglossal nerve ?
Answer
D. Palatoglossus
24
All are branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT
Answer
A. Inferior thyroid artery
25
Which of the following muscles is the depressor of temporomandibular joint ?
Answer
C. Lateral pterygoid
26
Which is the main form of transport of CO2 in blood ?
Answer
D. Bicarbonate
27
Hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin in
Answer
B. Spleen
28
The main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is
Answer
A. Glutamate
29
Maximum absorption of water takes place in
Answer
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
30
Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to
Answer
A. Albumin
31
Chromosomal abnormality associated with Chronic myeloid leukaemia is
Answer
B. t(9;22)
32
__________ is a feature of chronic inflammation
Answer
D. Granuloma
33
Following are components of Virchow’s triad except
Answer
A. emboli
34
Among the following, __________ is a proto oncogene
Answer
D. cERB B2
35
Which of the following findings is seen in red blood cells in Megaloblastic anemia ?
Answer
C. Cabot rings
36
Which among the following is an Ionotropic Receptor ?
Answer
A. GABAA Receptor
37
Therapeutic Index is expressed as : LD 50 ED 50 LD 1
Answer
A. ED 50
38
Acute development of tolerance after rapid and repeated administration of drugs at short intervals is
Answer
A. Tachyphylaxis
39
In which phase of clinical trial pharmacological evaluation of the new drug is performed on healthy volunteers ?
Answer
C. Phase I
40
Alcoholic extracts of plant drugs are called
Answer
B. Tinctures
41
Choose the best dietary source of Vitamin C from the following
Answer
C. Citrus fruits
42
The protein digesting enzyme present in the stomach
Answer
C. Pepsin
43
The sugar of milk
Answer
B. Lactose
44
Tetany is manifested in
Answer
A. Respiratory alkalosis
45
One of the following test is not useful to assess kidney function
Answer
C. Plasma Creatine
46
Which of the following bacterial cultures show red fluorescence when exposed to UV light ?
Answer
C. Prevotella melanogenica
47
Which is the causative agent of Dental caries ?
Answer
A. Streptococcus mutans
48
Mechanism of Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Answer
D. Mutation
49
Which of the following viral markers is first to appear in blood after infection with Hepatitis B virus ?
Answer
A. HBs Ag
50
Hard chancre is characteristic of
Answer
A. Primary syphilis
51
Electric pulp tests are known to be unreliable in young permanent teeth, because
Answer
B. the relatively late development of A delta fibres
52
In SI/STA Classification of dental caries; SI 1 is applied to
Answer
A. Pit and Fissure caries
53
C-factor of class I cavity is
Answer
C. 5
54
What does the term SCAP in an immature, permanent tooth denote ?
Answer
B. a unique population of dental mesenchymal stem cells
55
The angle the blade makes with the central longitudinal axis of the endodontic file is called
Answer
D. Helix Angle
56
The extent of facial and lingual cervical contours for maxillary teeth from the CEJ is approximately
Answer
A. 0.5 mm
57
Who first introduced the term “Dead tracts” in dentin ?
Answer
C. Wilfred Fish
58
How many teeth are seen in the Orthopantomogram (OPG) of a 6 months old child ?
Answer
D. 34
59
RANK-RANKL-OPG signaling pathway is important in regulating the differentiation and activation of which cells ?
Answer
B. Osteoclasts
60
Which non-keratinocyte has desmosomal attachment with adjacent cells ?
Answer
A. Merkel cells
61
Postzygotic mutation of GNAS1 gene in a somatic cell leads to the formation of
Answer
C. Fibrous Dysplasia
62
The gene for the production of Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (Factor XI) is located on
Answer
D. Chromosome 4
63
Congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid occurring on movement of the mandible to the contralateral side is called
Answer
A. Marcus Gunn Syndrome
64
In OLEP Staging system for Oral leukoplakia, which one of the following lesion is included in Stage III ?
Answer
B. L1P1
65
Which is the most common salivary neoplasm arising from an odontogenic cyst ?
Answer
C. Mucoepidemoid Carcinoma
66
Open bites, associated with craniofacial syndromes is a deviation from normal in
Answer
A. Vertical plane
67
Highest form of clinical evidence in hierarchy of quality that exists to guide clinical decision is
Answer
C. Meta analysis
68
Among the following which tooth calcification is commonly associated with assessment of skeletal maturity ?
Answer
B. Mandibular canine
69
The personality considered as forerunner of rapid maxillary expander is
Answer
D. Emerson C Angell
70
Which among the following techniques cannot enhance the rate of tooth movement ?
Answer
B. Application of heat to teeth and alveolar bone
71
Genetic theory of Growth was put forward by
Answer
A. Brodie in 1941
72
In cephalometrics, pterygoid vertical plane (PTV) is
Answer
B. Line perpendicular to FH plane through Pt point
73
Which is not a mixed Dentition Analysis ?
Answer
B. Ashley Hower’s Analysis
74
Kinectic Cavity Preparation
Answer
Question Cancelled
75
Which is not a complication associated with stainless steel crown ?
Answer
D. Premature contacts well tolerated by child
76
Collimators are made up of
Answer
D. Lead
77
Cystic, keratin filled nodules seen along the mid palatine raphae
Answer
C. Epstein pearls
78
Herpangina is caused by
Answer
A. Coxsackie virus
79
Restrainer in developing solution
Answer
A. Potassium bromide
80
Dimension of occlusal film
Answer
B. 57 mm × 76 mm
81
Which among the following study designs is best suited for estimation of relative risk ?
Answer
B. Cohort study
82
Each study subject also serves as a control in
Answer
D. Cross over trial
83
Which of the following is the most cost effective technique for prevention of caries ?
Answer
A. Community water fluoridation
84
Identify the third generation chemical plaque control agent from the following
Answer
D. Delmopinol
85
Incidence can be obtained from
Answer
C. Longitudinal study
86
The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary characteristic of
Answer
C. Established lesion
87
The cytokeratins which are expressed in the junctional epithelium are
Answer
B. K5 and K14
88
The technique that surgically removes the pocket wall is
Answer
A. Undisplaced flap
89
Which of the following electronic probe is capable of locating the cementoenamel junction ?
Answer
B. Foster Miller probe
90
Which of the following is a sulcular brushing technique ?
Answer
D. Bass technique A
91
Amount of Lignocaine present in 2cc of 2% LA solution is
Answer
A. 40 mg
92
The pathognomonic sign of fracture mandible is
Answer
D. Sublingual Hematoma
93
The direction of first force applied in extracting upper anterior tooth is
Answer
C. Apical
94
Sodium metabisulphite is added to local anaesthetic solution as
Answer
C. Anti oxidant to protect vasoconstrictor
95
Which of the following is the drug of choice in Anaphylactic shock ?
Answer
B. Adrenalin
96
Gypsum is
Answer
A. CaSO4.2H2 O
97
Freeway space =
Answer
C. rest vertical dimension − occlusal vertical dimension
98
In RPD, border of maxillary major connector should be at least __________ away from the gingival crevice of teeth
Answer
B. 6 mm
99
In tooth preparation for fixed partial dentures and crowns, bevel should be prepared in
Answer
B. functional cusp
100
Type of minor connector in removable partial denture that is not required to be rigid
Answer
D. approach arm for Bar type clasp -o0o- 4 A
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