| Post Name | Assistant Director (Biology) - Kerala Police Service |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 123/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 062/2022 |
| Date of Test | 24 July 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Morphologically indistinguishable but genetically diļ¬erent populations are called
Answer
B. Cryptic species
2
Who proposed the ļ¬ve kingdom classiļ¬cation?
Answer
A. Robert H. Whittaker
3
An ogive is a graphic presentation of the _______ distribution for a given set of data.
Answer
D. Cumulative frequency
4
Following measure of dispersion is not based on all the observation of a series. (i) Standard deviation (ii) Quartile deviation (iii) Mean deviation (iv) Range
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv)
5
Which among the following products from Kerala have registered under Geographical indications recently? (i) Kanthalloor Vattavada Veluthulli (ii) Kodungallur Pottuvellari (iii) Onattukara Ellu (iv) Attappady Thuvara
Answer
D. All the above
6
_____ is a semi quantitative technique for detecting radioactively labelled molecules in cells, tissues or electrophoretic gels.
Answer
C. Autoradiography
7
Following radioisotopes are commonly used in biological research. Their half-life is mentioned in the bracket. Which among them have the highest speciļ¬c activity?
Answer
A. Phosphorus-32 (14.3 days)
8
Which microscopy will be used to view the details of live, unstained cells? (i) Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) (ii) Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) (iii) Phase Contrast Microscope (iv) Diļ¬erential Interference Contrast (DIC) microscope
Answer
C. (iii) and (iv) only
9
Which of the following statements is not true about Agarose gel electrophoresis. (i) It uses electric current to separate DNA molecules. (ii) Under electric ļ¬eld, DNA migrates from positive electrode to negative electrode. (iii) If separates DNA by size. (iv) Ethidium bromide is usually used to visualize DNA in gels.
Answer
B. (ii) only
10
Visualization at the nanoscale can be achieved by (i) Scanning Tunneling Microscopy (ii) Atomic Force Microscopy (iii) Nomarsky microscopy (iv) All the above
Answer
D. (i) and (ii)
11
Monomers of Lactose are
Answer
C. One galactose and one glucose
12
Which are the three aminoacids with aromatic side chains?
Answer
D. Phynylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryphtophan
13
Select the incorrect statement about -helix from the following
Answer
B. -helix is left handed
14
______ lipids are involved in the production of pain and fever.
Answer
A. Prostaglandins
15
The Watson-Crick model of DNA is based on X-ray diļ¬raction data provided by
Answer
B. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
16
Select the correct statement from the following. (i) In competitive inhibition, inhibiters bind to the active site of the enzyme. (ii) Competitive inhibition can be overcome by a suļ¬ciently high concentration of substrate. (iii) Noncompetitive inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration.
Answer
D. (i, ii and iii)
17
Flowering can be induced in some plants by a cold treatment given to a hydrated seed or to a growing plant. The process is known as
Answer
C. Vernalization
18
The synthesis of sugars through the reversal of glycolysis is called
Answer
A. Gluconeogenesis
19
Carrier proteins that transport a single type of molecule down its concentration gradient via facilitated diļ¬usion are called
Answer
C. Uniporters
20
Nucleosomes of eukaryotes contain _______ base pairs of DNA.
Answer
A. 147
21
Turner syndrome is due to
Answer
B. Monosomy
22
CDK1/Cdc25C functions in
Answer
D. The intra S-phase checkpoint
23
Which among the following is not a promoter elements in eukaryotes
Answer
D. Pribnow box
24
______ allows a tRNA to recognize more than one mRNA codon.
Answer
B. Wobble pairing
25
Which of the following combination is correct about ribosome composition? (i) 50S(23S+5S), 30S(16S)=70S (ii) 50S(23S+5.8S), 30S(16S)=70S (iii) 60S(28S+5.8S+5S)+40S(18S)=80S (iv) 60S(28S+5.8S+5S)+40S(16S)=80S
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
26
Inactive but stable component of the genome derived by mutation of an ancestral active gene is called
Answer
B. Psuedogene
27
The strength of relationship or association between a dependent and an independent variables for a given population can be determined by
Answer
A. Regression
28
Poisson distribution is associated with
Answer
C. Probability of occurrence of rare events
29
In hypothesis testing, a Type 1 error arises when
Answer
A. Null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
30
Which of the following is not a cross-cutting issue permeating through the Biosafety protocol 2000?
Answer
A. Environment
31
Following is a list of some enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology with their activity. Select the incorrect combination of enzyme and its activity.
Answer
C. S1 nuclease : Degrades double-standard RNA
32
Few terms have been explained below. Select the correctly explained ones. (i) Multiple factor hypothesis explains variation in complex phenotypes such as height, weight, and disease susceptibility. (ii) Broad-sense heritability is the proportion of the total phenotypic variance that is due to genetic factors. (iii) Fitness is the number of oļ¬spring left by an individual, often compared with the average of the population. (iv) QTL are associated with a particular phenotypic trait, which varies in degree and which can be attributed to polygenic eļ¬ects.
Answer
D. All are correct
33
Though fusion tags have been very helpful in the detection and isolation of target recombinant proteins, they may interfere with the biological function of the target protein eventually. Hence, they are generally removed by cleaving a short linker amino acid sequence joining the fusion tag with the target protein using appropriate protease enzymes. Which of the following is a commonly used protease for performing the above cleavage?
Answer
B. Tobacco Etch Virus Protease
34
The ectopic expression of some transcription factors can increase the eļ¬ciency of somatic embryogenesis (SE) induction and lead to the formation of somatic embryos without adding hormones. Mutations in these genes have a negative impact on the eļ¬ciency of SE induction. Which of the following is not such a transcription factor?
Answer
C. NOR
35
When was the Protein Data Bank established and what was the number of biological macromolecular structures held in the database at that time?
Answer
D. 1971 with 7 structures
36
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a human bone disease. The majority of people with this disease have a dominant mutation in one of the two genes that produce type 1 collagen, COL1A1 or COL1A2. However, this disease doesn't aļ¬ect everyone who has COLIA1 and COLIA2 mutations in the same way. In fact, some people can carry the mutation but have no symptoms. Which of the following terms explains the above phenomenon?
Answer
B. Incomplete penetrance
37
Following are statements regarding bacteriophage lambda (i) pR transcript encodes N, a transcriptional anti-terminator required for expression of most early lambda genes, and CIII, a positive regulator of lysogeny. (ii) pL transcript encodes for Cro, CII, O, P, and Q (iii) CII is the major lysogenic decision determinant, promoting the expression of CI Which one of the options below represents the combination of all correct stateemnts?
Answer
A. Only(iii) is correct
38
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
Answer
B. Macro H2C is a variant of the histone protein H2 located in the inactive X chromosome region
39
Which of the following is an incorrect combination of a viral disease and the Order of the causative virus? (i) AIDS : Orterirales (ii) Measles : Mononegativrales (iii) SARS : Norzivirales (iv) Rabies : Mononegavirales
Answer
D. Only (iii)
40
The mode of action of certain antibiotics is given below (i) Ampicillin : Inhibition of cell wall synthesis by interference with peptidoglycan cross-linking (ii) Chloramphenicol : Inhibition of translation by blocking peptidyl transferase on the 50S ribosomal submit Select the right option
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
41
Which of the following media is selective and diļ¬erential in its function? (i) Eosin methylene blue agar (ii) MacConkey Agar (iii) Mannitol Salt Agar
Answer
D. All of the above
42
Given below are hyperaccumulator plants with the elements that they accumulate. Find out the correct combination. (i) Nickel:Phyllanthus (ii) Zinc : Arabidopsis (iii) Arsenic : Pteris (iv) Copper : Commelina
Answer
B. All are correct
43
Which among the following does not belong to schedule I as per the Wildlife Protection Act in India?
Answer
B. Indian Porcupine
44
Which of the following statements is correct about ice cores? (i) The U.S. National Ice Core Laboratory, in Lakewood, Colorado, is the U.S. storage facility, which archives ice cores from all over the world (ii) The ice cores contain annual layers that can be counted to known the age of the ice, just like rings inside a tree. (iii) In India, ice core facility is available at Centre for Climate Research, IITM, Pune. (iv) Ice cores tell about past climate, including the past atmospheric temperatures and greenhouse gases.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
45
The natural products obtained from plants belong to diļ¬erent classes and almost each one shows antiinfective properties. Among the various classes, the ones with the lowest proportion of antiinfective metabolites are
Answer
A. Sugars and Glycosylated compounds
46
Choose the incorrect statement from the following
Answer
C. T-loops are special structures seen in giant chromosomes
47
Identify the incorrect statement. (i) Density gradient centrifugation can be used to identify all repetitive DNA sequences (ii) The most highly repeated sequences in eukaryotic genomes do not encode Proteins or RNA (iii) The most prevalent of the repeated DNA sequences are transposable genetic elements, or inactive sequences derived from transposable elements. (iv) An abundance of dispersed repetitive DNA in the genome makes chromosomes walking easier.
Answer
B. Both (i) and (iv)
48
Who among the following has received Nobel Prize for a direct contribution to the ļ¬eld of Genetics? (i) Har Gobind Khurana (ii) Arthur Kornberg (iii) Hamilton O Smith (iv) Beadle and Tatum
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
49
Read the following statements in the context of epigenetics. (i) When the DNA of a cell is replicated, histones associated with the DNA as part of the nucleosomes are distributed randomly to the daughter cells along with the DNA molecules. (ii) Histone code postulates that the state and activity of a particular region of chromatin depend on the speciļ¬c modiļ¬cations, or combinations of modiļ¬cations, to the histone tails in that region. (iii) The most notable histone modiļ¬cations include acetylation, methylation and phosphorylation. (iv) Histone modiļ¬cations alter the manner in which the histone tails of neighboring nucleosomes interact with one another Which among the above is a correct statement?
Answer
D. All are correct
50
The major facilities supported by the Biotechnology Information System Network (BTISnet) of the Department of Biotechnology, India include
Answer
D. All of the above
51
Erythropoietin is secreted by
Answer
A. Kidney
52
Which of the following primary chordate characters are not lost even after retrogressive metamorphosis in Ascidia
Answer
B. Pharyngeal gill slits
53
Which of the following is false regarding B cells?
Answer
C. Surface immunoglobulin absent
54
Vaccination done for ______ is a toxoid preparation.
Answer
A. Diphtheria
55
According to Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, the cells in their descending order of sensitivity to radiation are
Answer
C. Haematopoietic cells , Epithelial cells, Muscle cells, Nerve cells
56
Which of the following matches correctly? (i) Devonian - Mammals (ii) Pennsylvanian - Fishes (iii) Jurassic - Reptiles (iv) Tertiary - Amphibians
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii)
57
The fetal hormones which works as uterine stimulants to enable parturition are
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
58
Which statement regarding rigor mortis is correct?
Answer
C. Muscles contract and become rigid even without action potential
59
Which among the following is an immunologically privileged site?
Answer
D. All of these
60
Position emission tomography is based on
Answer
C. Pair annihilation
61
Which of the following are wrong pairs? (i) Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia : Rh antigen (ii) Graves disease : thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (iii) Myasthenia gravis : Adrenaline receptor (iv) Systemic lupus erythematosus : Rh antigen
Answer
C. (iii) and (iv)
62
Which of the following is wrong with respect to radionuclide used in nuclear medicine? (i) must emit gamma ray with the right energy to allow detection (ii) mush have a short half-life (iii) must be cheap (iv) must be readily available
Answer
D. none of these
63
Directional selection (i) occurs due to the change in the environmental in particular direction (ii) favors the phenotype which is non-average or extreme (iii) eliminates normal or average individuals (iv) keeps a population genetically constant
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
64
Oxytocin and vasopressin are structurally and functionally similar nonapeptides secreted by the posterior pituitary. The diļ¬erence between the two is that
Answer
A. Phenyl alanine and Arginine of Vasopressin are substituted by Isoleucine and leucine in Oxytocin
65
Contribution of external factors in their descending order, in compressing the lymph vessel adn thereby causing pumping of lymph, are
Answer
A. Contraction of surrounding skeletal muscles, movement of the part of the body, pulsation of arteries adjacent to the lymphatics, compression of the tissues by objects outside the body
66
State bird of Kerala is
Answer
A. Buceros bicornis
67
Physiology of which sensation involves a hyperpolarizaton rather than depolarization?
Answer
D. Vision
68
Which of the complement activation pathways are antibody independent?
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
69
Which one of the following denote the correct order of the divisions of the geologic time scale?
Answer
B. Eon, Era, Period, Epoch, Age
70
Which of the following is true with respect to passive immunity?
Answer
C. Immunity develops immediately
71
Why are large amounts of solutes ļ¬ltered and then reabsorbed by the kidneys?
Answer
C. Both (a) and (b)
72
Antibiotic aminopterin added in the growth medium for production of monoclonal antibodies, inhibits ________ synthesis.
Answer
A. Nucleic acid
73
In chemical control of respiration, oxygen has a signiļ¬cant direct eļ¬ect on
Answer
D. Both (2) and (c)
74
Zymogen activation by autocatalysis is shown by
Answer
B. Trypsin
75
Damage to the substantia nigra of basal ganglia results in
Answer
C. Parkinsons
76
Which antibody complies the following characteristics : enters secretion,crosses placenta, binds to macrophages/neutrophils
Answer
B. IgG
77
Glucose uptake from the lumen of small intestinal is an example of
Answer
C. Secondary active transport
78
Respiratory distress syndrome in premature babies can be caused by
Answer
D. Decreased surfactant production and smaller radii of alveoli
79
Overall ability of antibodies to interact with antigen is called
Answer
B. Avidity
80
Which of the following combinations are correct? (i) Widal's test-Typhoid-Agglutination test (ii) Weil-Felix test-Rickettsial infections-Precipitation test (iii) Wasserman test-Sypthilis-Complement ļ¬xation test
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
81
Which of the following is not a type of tissue culture?
Answer
D. Bacterial culture
82
Which of the following is an example of a tissue-engineered product that has been approved for clinical use?
Answer
A. Artiļ¬cial heart valve
83
Which of the following is a commonly used cryoprotectant in embryo cryopreservation?
Answer
B. Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
84
Which of the following is not a characteristic of stem cells?
Answer
C. Apoptosis
85
What are induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs)
Answer
A. Stem cells derived from adult tissues that have been reprogrammed to a pluripotent state
86
What is the target antigen for trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
Answer
B. HER2 (Human Epidermal Growth factor receptor 2Q
87
Which of the following amino acids is nonpolar?
Answer
C. Leucine
88
Which of the following is an example of a probiotic strain?
Answer
A. Lactobacillus acidophilus
89
Which of the following is NOT involved in cell determination?
Answer
C. Cell migration
90
How do morphogenetic gradients inļ¬uence tissue development?
Answer
D. All of the above
91
Which of the following is the correct order of events in oogenesis?
Answer
C. Ovulation, Meiosis I, Meiosis II, fertilization
92
Which of the following is a result of capacitation?
Answer
A. Acrosome reaction
93
What is the signiļ¬cation of meroblastic cleavage?
Answer
B. It a allows for the development of large eggs with lots of yolk
94
Which of the following is true about teratogenesis?
Answer
B. It can occur at any stage of development
95
Which of the following is a protein complex involved in dosage compensation in mammals?
Answer
C. Xist
96
Which of the following is true about exons and introns?
Answer
C. Both exons and introns are transcribed into RNA
97
What is preimplantation genetic testing?
Answer
B. A technique used to screen embryos for genetic disorders
98
How is the absence of the H antigen related to the presence of the A and B antigens?
Answer
A. The A and B antigens are modiļ¬ed forms of the H antigen
99
Which of the following is a recently discovered species of primates?
Answer
C. Pongo tapanuliensis
100
Scientists discovered a new organ in the human body that had gone unnoticed till recently . What is the name of this organ?
Answer
A. Mesentery
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.