| Post Name | Assistant Engineer (Agriculture) - Agriculture Development and Farmers Welfare Department |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 169/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 665/2022 |
| Date of Test | 18 December 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The name of attachment to the MB plough bottom used to cut trash, avoid clogging and to obtain a neat furrow wall is
Answer
B. Coulter
2
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the draft requirement of disc ploughs? i. Draft is inļ¬uenced by the speed of operation. ii. Cross sectional area of the furrow does not inļ¬uence the draft requirement iii. Diameter of the disc and concavity have considerable eļ¬ect on draft. iv. Increasing the tilt angle decreases the draft.
Answer
C. i and iii are correct
3
Which of the following methods are used to change the seed rate in a ļ¬uted roller type metering mechanism? i. Shifting the rollers sideways to change the length of grooves exposed to the seed ii Change the adjustable gate opening at the discharge side iii. Changing the speed of driving square shaft of the ļ¬uted roller
Answer
D. i and iii
4
___________ type plough bottoms are ļ¬avoured in dry areas where the soil is rough and stony.
Answer
A. Rolling bottom
5
A virtual point on tractor, midway between the rear wheels and in line with axle is named as
Answer
A. Center of pull
6
A 2-bottom tractor mounted MB plough of 30 cm width is ploughing at a depth of 10 cm. If the tractor speed is 5 kmph and ļ¬eld eļ¬ciency is 70%, what is the eļ¬ective ļ¬eld capacity of ploughing operation.
Answer
D. 0.21
7
In MB ploughs, the angle normally provided at the cutting edge of share to the direction of travel in order to obtain turning and immediate inversion is
Answer
D. 40Ā° to 45Ā°
8
Ratio of the net pull produced to the dynamic normal load of the traction device is
Answer
B. Net Traction coeļ¬cient
9
Ratio of seat vibration intensity to chassis vibration intensity in a tractor is known as
Answer
B. Transmissibility
10
The appropriate approach for calculating depreciation when a tractor is purchased for its entire operational lifespan and not intended for resale is the
Answer
A. Straight line method
11
In the equation (S = C + N tan Ļ) to determine the shear stress at the soil failure surface when a tillage tool moves in soil, which factor is represented by the letter Ļ
Answer
C. Angle of internal friction
12
Which of the following statements are true regarding the ļ¬uid properties aļ¬ecting droplet size in agricultural spraying? i. increased surface tension decreases the size of droplets ii. increased surface tension increases the size of droplets iii. increased viscosity increases droplet sizes iv. increased viscosity decreases droplet sizes
Answer
C. ii and iii are correct
13
The rate at which energy is received from the sun on a unit area perpendicular to the rays of the sun, at mean distance of the earth from the sun will be
Answer
Question Cancelled
14
The instrument employed for measurement of the total hemispherical solar radiation is
Answer
D. pyranometer
15
The area of the wind streams swept by the wind turbine is maximum, when blades face into the wind. This is achieved by
Answer
A. Yaw control
16
The C:N ratio for best biogas production is 25 to 30 because
Answer
C. The fermentative bacteria use carbon 25 to 30 times as fast as nitrogen
17
The intensity, duration and frequency of rainfall are interrelated as
Answer
Question Cancelled
18
The contour bunds in heavy and medium rainfall areas, the grades of the bunds may be __________ towards the outlet.
Answer
B. 0.2 to 0.3%
19
Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of the land capability of diļ¬erent land areas for sustainable crops
Answer
D. Rainfall
20
Which of the following software will not be used for GIS application software?
Answer
D. BETILGI
21
In a Geographical data models, forest, desert, ļ¬oodplain can be represented by
Answer
B. Polygons
22
The Gunter's chain is ____________ long and divided into _________ links.
Answer
C. 66 ft, 100
23
Which of the following is / are bench marks i. GTS bench marks ii. Permanent and temporary bench mark iii. Arbitrary bench mark iv. Point benchmark
Answer
B. i, ii and iii
24
The velocity of flow at the toe in Chute Spillway design is given by
Answer
D. Vā = ā[2g(H ā h_f)]
25
If the gully depth is between 1m to 5m, then Gullies are classiļ¬ed as
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
Recommended maximum velocities in low pressure underground pipelines are in the range of _______
Answer
C. 1.3 to 1.5 m/s
27
The actual velocity at which water is moving through an aquifer is related to the Apparent / Seepage velocity given by Darcys law, by the expression
Answer
A. vā = V/n
28
The Delta for a crop when its duty is 864 hectares/cumec and base period is 120 days is
Answer
B. 120 cm
29
In the silt theories for design of Alluvial channels by Kennedy which of the following statements are true : i. Silt is kept in suspension by the vertical component of eddies ii. Eddies generated from the sides of Trapezoidal channel was neglected iii. Critical velocity formula depends only on the depth of ļ¬ow iv. Two regime conditions exist : initial and ļ¬nal regime
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
30
The drilling method best adapted for drilling deep holes in unconsolidated Alluvial formations is
Answer
B. Rotary drilling
31
Which of the following statements are true regarding performance of centrifugal pumps i. The capacity of the pump varies directly as the speed ii. The capacity of pump varies directly as the diameter iii. The head varies directly as the square of the speed iv. The head varies directly as the cube of the diameter ii, iii and iv
Answer
C. i, ii and iii
32
The ļ¬lter used in Drip irrigation systems to remove suspended substances with speciļ¬c gravity greater than 1.2 is
Answer
D. Hydro cyclone ļ¬lter
33
In a centrifugal pump, the volute casing helps to convert
Answer
D. Velocity head to pressure head
34
The accessory used to relieve pressure in the tile drain line is
Answer
C. Relief wells and Breathers
35
In case of grain, the ratio of the diameter of the largest inscribing circle to the diameter of the smallest circumscribing circle is known as
Answer
C. Sphericity
36
The drag and lift properties of food material are important in designing
Answer
D. Pneumatic conveyors
37
In __________ separator, the grain shape and the frictional diļ¬erence between the grains and belt material are used for separation
Answer
D. Inclined belt
38
The transport property of material that aļ¬ects heat conduction is
Answer
A. Thermal conductivity
39
The overall heat transfer coeļ¬cient in a heat exchanger takes into eļ¬ect
Answer
C. Convection in each ļ¬uid involved and conduction through the walls separating the ļ¬uids
40
During drying process, the air moving through the grain for removing moisture is subjected to this thermodynamic process
Answer
B. Cooling and humidifying
41
In multiple eļ¬ect evaporators, the pressure in the 2nd stage will be __________ that of the ļ¬rst stage
Answer
B. Less than
42
In falling ļ¬lm evaporators, the milk is introduced at the _________ of the heating unit
Answer
C. Top
43
In a ļ¬ltration equipment, resistance to ļ¬ltration arises from two sources namely the ļ¬ltering screen and
Answer
D. ļ¬lter cake
44
Suitable moisture content for the safe storage of paddy is in the range of
Answer
A. 10-12%
45
value in thermal processing indicates the sum of lethality rate to ensure
Answer
C. Commercial sterilization
46
The free moisture available in the grain will be removed ļ¬rst in this phase of drying
Answer
B. constant rate drying
47
One of the eļ¬ects of the deposition of fouling matter in heat exchanger tubes in milk processing is that the
Answer
C. overall heat transfer coeļ¬cient will be reduced
48
Kick has assumed that the energy required for size reduction is proportional to the
Answer
A. size reduction ratio (dL/L)
49
A quotient indicating how much more rapidly the reaction proceeds at a temperature than at a lower temperature is called as
Answer
D. Q value
50
If bulk density of a material is given as 700 kg/ and true density as 1000 kg/ , its porosity will be
Answer
A. 30%
51
When the annual demand of a product is 24,000 units the economic order quantity (EOQ) is 2000 units. If the annual demand is 48,000 units the most appropriate EOQ will be
Answer
C. 2800 units
52
In simple exponential smoothing forecasting to ļ¬ve heigher weightage to recent demand information, the smoothing constant must be equal to
Answer
D. 1.0
53
Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given below : Job I II III IV V VI Completion time 4 9 5 10 6 8 Average ļ¬ow time (in days) for the above jobs using shortest processing time rule is
Answer
A. 20.83
54
In PERT analysis, a critical activity has
Answer
B. Zero ļ¬oat
55
The word Kanban is most appropriate associated with
Answer
B. Just-in-time production
56
If there are 'm' sources and 'n' destinations in a transportation matrix, the total number of basic variables in the basic feasible solution is
Answer
C. m + n - 1
57
Which one of the following is not a decision taken during the aggregate production planning stage?
Answer
A. Scheduling of machines
58
Determination of standard time in complex job system is best done through
Answer
D. Analysis of standard date systems
59
Which of the following are the principles of material handling?
Answer
B. move as few pieces as possible in one unit
60
The routing function in a production system design is concerned with
Answer
D. optimizing material ļ¬ow through the plant
61
Number of nearest neighboring atoms on FCC crystal is
Answer
C. 12
62
Choose the correct statements for normalizing i. Normalizing improves strength ii. Normalizing increase hardness iii. Normalizing removes internal stresses iv. Normalizing improve toughness.
Answer
B. iii and iv are correct
63
Which of the following defect is not detected by Dye penetrant test
Answer
A. Nonmetallic inclusions
64
Which of the following instrument is appropriate for inspection during mass production of identical cylindrical specimens with Ā±0.5mm
Answer
C. GO and NO-GO gauges
65
Which is preferred for welding Aluminium sheets?
Answer
C. TIG welding
66
What happens to the permeability of moulding sand as the asnd grain size increases?
Answer
B. Increases
67
In case of simple turning operation in a Lathe, for the same spindle speed, if the diameter of workpiece is increased, how will the cutting speed vary?
Answer
A. Increase
68
Continuous chips with BUE are formed during the machining of
Answer
B. Ductile material at low cutting speed
69
Process of changing the shape of grinding wheels when it becomes worn from original shape due to breaking away of abrasive is called
Answer
B. Truing
70
In which of the following milling method, the cutter rotates in the direction opposite to the direction in which work is fed
Answer
A. Up Milling
71
A pitot-static tube, with a coeļ¬cient of 0.98 is used to measure the velocity of water in a pipe. The stagnation pressure head is 6 m and static pressure head is 5 m. What is the velocity of ļ¬ow?
Answer
D. 4.34 m/s
72
Euler equation for water turbine is derived on the basis of
Answer
A. Rate of change of angular momentum
73
Stream lines, streak lines and path lines are identical for a
Answer
A. Steady ļ¬ow
74
The material acceleration is always zero for a/an
Answer
A. Steady and uniform ļ¬ow
75
The separation of the boundary layer takes place when the pressure gradient is
Answer
C. Positive
76
When an air vessel is ļ¬tted to a single acting reciprocating pump the % of saving in work done against friction is
Answer
A. 84.8%
77
Two pumps can operate independently at heads Hā, Hā and discharges Qā, Qā respectively. If the pumps are connected in parallel, then what are the resulting discharge (Q) and head (H)?
Answer
A. H = Hā = Hā; Q = Qā + Qā
78
The overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump when head is 25 m, discharge is 0.004 mĀ³/s and output power P is 16 kW (g = 10 m/sĀ², Ļ = 1000 kg/mĀ³) is:
Answer
Question Cancelled
79
Match List-I (Turbine) with List-II (Speciļ¬c speeds) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I List-II A. Francis 1. 10-35 B. Kaplan 2. 35-60 C. Pelton (one jet) 3. 60-300 D. Pelton (two jets) 4. 300-1000
Answer
A. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
80
For maximum eļ¬ciency of a series of curved vanes, the vane speed is
Answer
D. Half of the jet speed
81
The centroid of an equilateral triangle is located at
Answer
B. Two-third the distance from each vertex along each median
82
A steel cylindrical closed container having inner diameter D and wall thickness t, where D > 20t, is holding gas at pressure P. If the container is positioned horizontally, the hoop stress experienced by the cylinder could be
Answer
C. PD/2t
83
Which among the following screw thread proļ¬le is suggested in higher axial load applications
Answer
B. Buttress thread
84
A design engineer designated a ļ¬t as 25H6k7, to mount a gear on a shaft. What kind of ļ¬t is it?
Answer
C. Transition ļ¬t
85
An orthopedic implant pin of titanium alloy having length 50 mm and diameter 20Ā±0.02 mm is to be plated with nickel with coating thickness 50Ā±5Ī¼m. What would be the dimension of the GO ring gauge to check the diameter of the plated pin, if gauge tolerance is neglected?
Answer
B. 20.130 mm
86
'A screw advances linearly when the screw is rotated inside a stationary nut'. How many degrees of freedom for such a screw joint?
Answer
A. 1
87
Stress-strain curve of a material is observed to be linear throughout the strain limit. The material could be
Answer
C. Glass
88
A surface roughness proļ¬le of a turned surface is appeared to be a triangular proļ¬le having base b and height h, as shown below. The CLA roughness value for the given proļ¬le would be
Answer
A. h/2
89
Pick the odd-one-out from the given power transmission drives:
Answer
D. Clutch drive
90
Which among the given metal joining terminology is commonly used, when two pieces of metal are joined by melting its edges and adding a ļ¬ller material, if necessary?
Answer
D. Fusion welding
91
For a heat exchanger, Ī is the maximum temperature diļ¬erence and Ī is the minimum temperature diļ¬erence between the two ļ¬uids. LMTD is the log mean temperature diļ¬erence. and are the minimum and the maximum heat capacity rates. The maximum possible heat transfer between the two ļ¬uids is
Answer
D. Ī
92
A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius rā, outer radius rā, and thermal conductivity k. The thermal resistance of the cylinder for radial conduction is
Answer
B. ln(rā/rā)/(2ĻkL)
93
The ratio of momentum diļ¬usivity (v) to thermal diļ¬usivity ( ) is called
Answer
A. Prandtl number
94
For a glass plate transitivity and reļ¬ectivity are speciļ¬ed as 0.85 and 0.09 respectively, the absorptivity of the glass plate is
Answer
C. 0.06
95
Before entering the expansion or the throttle valve, a refrigerant's condition in any vapor compression system is
Answer
B. High pressure saturated liquid
96
Which of the following process is used in winter air conditioning?
Answer
A. Heating and Humidiļ¬cation
97
The highest temperature of a refrigerant in a refrigeration system operating on a reversed Carnot cycle is 27Ā°C and the lower temperature is -23Ā°C. The coeļ¬cient of performance?
Answer
D. 5.0
98
The theoretically correct air-fuel ratio for petrol engine is approximately
Answer
D. 15:1
99
The thermal eļ¬ciency of a diesel engine is of the order of
Answer
C. 35%
100
Diesel Engine fuels are rated by
Answer
A. Cetane number
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