| Post Name | Assistant Engineer (Civil) 097/2025, 180/2025 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 010/2026 |
| Category Code | 097/2025, 180/2025 |
| Date of Test | 4 February 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The range of deformation where the material undergoes irreversible dimensional change
is generally known as
Answer
B. Plastic
2
The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.
With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies ?
Answer
A. Both the statements are true
3
The ratio of Shear modulus to young’s modulus for a material with Poisson’s ratio of
0.25 is
Answer
D. 0.4
4
A composite bar consists of bars with areas and Young's moduli A₁,E₁ and A₂,E₂. Compatibility requires stresses σ₁ and σ₂ to satisfy:
Answer
C. σ₁/σ₂ = E₁/E₂
5
The failure of a material below the yield point, when subjected to repeated stresses is
known as
Answer
A. Fatigue
6
Introduction of an internal hinge in a simply supported beam makes it
Answer
D. Unstable
7
A truss is analysed assuming that
Answer
B. The loads are applied at the joints only
8
A funicular arch resists
Answer
C. Compression only
9
Kinematic indeterminacy at the fixed support of a plane frame is
Answer
D. 0
10
The strain energy stored in a member of length l and axial rigidity AE subjected to a
gradually applied axial force P is
2 2 3
Answer
C. P l
11
The pressure head, in meters of mercury, equivalent to the pressure head of 272 m of
water is
Answer
A. 20
12
A wooden rectangular block of length 1 m is made to float in water with its axis vertical.
If the centre of gravity of the floating body is 0.2 m above the centre of buoyancy, find
the specific gravity of the wooden block.
Answer
B. 0.6
13
For a uniform flow in a rectangular channel, the depth of flow is 1 m and Froude number
is 2.0. Find the specific energy.
Answer
A. 3 m
14
A turbine develops 425 kW power under a net head of 20 m. If the overall efficiency
of the turbine is 85%, the discharge of water having specific weight 10 kN/m3 through
the turbine in m3/s, is
Answer
C. 2.5
15
In the Froude law of similitude, the time scale ratio in terms of length scale ratio l r is
Answer
D. lr0.5
16
The rainfall on five successive days on a catchment was 3 cm, 6 cm, 9 cm, 5 cm and
4 cm respectively. If the φ-index for the storm can be assumed to be 4 cm/day, the total
direct runoff from the catchment is
Answer
B. 8 cm
17
A direct runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm is triangular in shape with base of
100 h and peak of 50 m3/s. If the catchment area is 150 km2, the rainfall excess in the
storm is
Answer
C. 6 cm
18
If a crop requires a total depth of 0.5 m of water for a base period of 100 days, then
the duty in hectares/cumecs is about
Answer
B. 1728
19
The meander ratio is the ratio of
Answer
D. The width of the meander belt to the meander length
20
For a well penetrating an unconfined aquifer with permeability 4 × 10⁻⁴ m/s, the radius of influence for a 4 m drawdown is approximately:
Answer
A. 240 m
21
A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
Answer
C. Steep slope
22
If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is ‘d’, then
the error due to curvature of earth is proportional to
1
Answer
A. d2
23
In GPS, elevation or vertical height is measured with reference to the
Answer
D. Ellipsoid
24
For a total station survey, prism/reflector is essential to measure
Answer
A. Horizontal distances
25
In GIS, a continuously varying phenomenon like temperature, ground water levels, etc.
can be easily represented in
Answer
B. Raster format
26
The reduced level of point A which is on the floor is 100.000 m and the backsight reading
on A is 2.455 m. If the foresight reading on point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m,
the reduced level of point B will be
Answer
D. 105. 200 m
27
The original cost of an equipment is Rs. 10,000/-. Its salvage value at the end of its total
useful life of 5 years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the end of 2 years of its useful life
Answer
C. Rs. 6,400/-
28
What is the capitalised value of a property fetching a net annual rent of Rs. 1,000/- and
the rate of interest is 8% ?
Answer
D. Rs. 12,500/-
29
The measurement of d.P.C.
Answer
B. Square meters
30
In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to
centre distance between the walls and
Answer
C. Half breadth of wall on each side
31
For different concrete specimens, each hydrated to the same degree, the permeability is
Answer
B. lower with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content
32
Tensile strength of concrete is measured by
Answer
B. Applying compressive load along the length of the cylinder
33
The most common admixture which commonly accelerate the setting of cement is
Answer
C. Calcium chloride
34
In a concrete mix, if the maximum size of coarse aggregate is increased, the proportion
of fine to coarse aggregate should be
Answer
A. decreased
35
After making 1 : 2 : 4 concrete by volume batching, it was noticed that the sand used
was wet with 25% bulking. Hence the true mix proportion of this concrete will be
Answer
D. 1 : 1.60 : 4
36
Soundness test of cement is done to determine its
Answer
C. Free-lime content
37
A window which projects outside the room of a building is known as
Answer
B. Bay window
38
The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings is known as
Answer
A. Strap footing
39
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
Answer
C. Batter pile
40
The line of intersection of the surfaces of a sloping roof, forming an external angle
exceeding 180° is
Answer
Question Cancelled
41
Exposed portions of vertical surface at right angles to the door or window frame are
known as
Answer
D. Reveals
42
Preferred arrangement for more than 3 lifts at the same location is
Answer
C. Alcove arrangement
43
Type of elevators suitable to serve low rises and heavy capacity are
Answer
B. Hydraulic elevators
44
ABC analysis is
Answer
C. Basic tool for establishing economic stock levels
45
If the pessimistic time, optimistic time and most likely time for an activity are 13, 8 and
9 days respectively, its expected time and variance are respectively
25
Answer
A. 9.5 and
46
A project is expected to take 24 months along the critical path having a standard
deviation of 3.6 months. What is the probability of completion of the project within
24 months ?
Given
z 0 0.60 1.60 1.80
Probability P(z) 50.0 72.6 94.5 96.4
Answer
A. 50.0%
47
There are four consecutive activities in a linear network, each with mean duration of ‘T’
and each with ‘K’ as the standard deviation of its duration. The overall project duration
is likely to be in the range
Answer
B. 4T ± 2K
48
Free float is determined to
Answer
A. Identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of
succeeding activity
49
Whenever an activity has zero total float, then
Answer
D. Both free float and independent float are zero
50
If ‘t’ is the possible duration of an activity, ‘T1’ is the latest finish possible moment of
its preceding activity and ‘T2’ is the earliest start possible moment of its succeeding
activity, the independent float of the activity is
Answer
A. (T2 – T1) – t
51
High test hypochlorites contains how much percentage of available chlorine ?
Answer
C. 70%
52
As per BIS, the minimum per capita domestic consumption for rural communities with
population upto 20,000 where piped water supply service connection is proposed is
Answer
A. Not less than 70 – 100 I/c/d
53
ARHP means
Answer
C. Annual Rainwater Harvesting Potential
54
Type of alkalinity which is present in water sources for pH of 8.3 is
Answer
A. Carbonate
55
Odour of a water is determined at a temperature of
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
In India, where rain occurs for a few months, the preferred sewerage system
would be
Answer
B. Separate system
57
In a pure or neutral water the quantum of H+ and OH– will each be equal to
Answer
A. 10 –7 moles/litre
58
The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose d.O. equals the total oxygen required
to satisfy BOd, is
Answer
C. 100%
59
One dobson Unit
Answer
C. 0.01 mm
60
In a conventional activated sludge plant, the oxygen demand is highest near the
Answer
A. Inlet end of the aeration tank
61
The final deflection limitation for floors and roofs due to all loads, including long term
effect of temperature, creep and shortage
Answer
B. Span/250
62
The minimum size of samples required for testing for 10 m3 of concrete
Answer
B. 2
63
The total compressive force at the time of failure of a concrete beam section of width ‘b’
without considering the partial safety factor of the material is
(where xu is depth of neutral axis and fck is the characteristic compressive strength of
concrete)
Answer
B. 0.54 fck b xu
64
The modulus of rupture of concrete is the
Answer
C. Tensile strength of concrete under bending
65
The flexural strength of M25 grade concrete as per IS 456 : 2000
Answer
C. 3.5 mPa
66
The following two statements made for a simply supported under reinforced beam :
1. Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.
2. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.
With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies ?
Answer
C. 1 is false, but 2 is true
67
The minimum grade of concrete to be used as per IS 456 : 2000 for an RC structure
constructed along sea coast
Answer
C. m30
68
As per IS 456 : 2000, the pH value of water for concrete mix shall not be less than
Answer
C. 6
69
The value of design bond stress in limit state method for plain bars in tension for m30
grade of concrete
Answer
C. 1.5 mPa
70
The minimum area of tension reinforcement in a beam shall be greater than
Answer
A. 0.85 bd/fy
71
The minimum thickness of edge of an RCC footing on soils shall not be less than
Answer
A. 150 mm
72
Flexural cracks can be controlled by
Answer
A. longitudinal tension bars
73
The maximum spacing of vertical stirrup measured along the axis of the members shall
not exceed (where d denotes the effective depth)
Answer
B. 0.75 d or 300 mm whichever is less
74
The partial safety factor for material resistance governed by ultimate stress is taken in
IS 800 as
Answer
C. 1.25
75
In property class 6.8 of bolts the number 6 and 8 indicates the ultimate stress of
_________ and yield stress of __________ respectively.
Answer
C. 600 mPa/480 mPa
76
Which is considered as the mode of failure of a fillet weld ?
Answer
A. Shear
77
The effective length of fillet weld may be taken as
Answer
B. Total length – 2 × weld size
78
The spacing of counterforts in a retaining wall of moderate height
Answer
C. One third to one half of total height
79
In the case of footings, the critical section for one-way shear is taken at a distance of
__________ from the face of the column.
Answer
A. Effective depth
80
The theoretical value of effective length of a column effectively held in position and
restrained against rotation in one end and restrained against rotation but not held in
position at the other end is
Answer
A. 1.0 l
81
What is the per capita demand, if Q is the total quantity of water a town requires per
year in litres and the population in the city is P ?
P Q
Answer
C. litres/day
82
What is the detention time for a circular sedimentation tank ?
2 2
A) d
Answer
A. .011d + 0.785H) B) Q
83
The rate of filtration in rapid gravity filters is
Answer
B. 3000 to 6000 litres per hour per sq. m of filter area
84
A centrifugal pump is required to lift 3 m3/s of water to a height of 4.7 metres. Assuming
the total loss of head in the pipe as 0.3 metres, calculate the water horsepower of the
pump.
Answer
B. 200
85
Write the manning’s formula for designing sewers and drains.
Answer
D. V = (1/n)r²ᐟ³s¹ᐟ²
86
Calculate the population equivalent of a given city
i. The average sewage from the city is 80 × 106 l/day, and
ii. The average 5 day BOd is 200 mg/l. Assume the domestic sewage quantity to
be 0.08 kg/person/day.
Answer
A. 2,00,000
87
The organic loading rate value of conventional trickling filters varies between
Answer
C. 900 to 2200 kg of BOd5 per ha-m
88
The conventional activated sludge plant has been modified to eliminate the primary
sedimentation tank, and sludge digestion tank, in a process is called
Answer
B. Oxidation ditch
89
The septic tank effluent is not disposed off in
Answer
D. Stabilisation ponds
90
Which type of plume occurs when an inversion layer occurs at a short distance above
the top of the stack, and super adiabatic conditions prevail below the stack ?
Answer
B. Fumigating Plume
91
In the mechanistic-empirical design approach specified by IRC : 37 : 2018, the fatigue
failure of the pavement is due to
Answer
C. Horizontal tensile strain at the bottom of the bituminous layer
92
The primary objective of providing extra width on a horizontal curve is
Answer
C. To counteract off-tracking and steering difficulties of vehicles
93
The specific part of a signal cycle allocated to a traffic movement or combination of
movements is called as
Answer
D. Phase
94
The effective gradient of a runway is defined as
Answer
B. difference in elevation between highest and lowest points divided by total runway
length
95
The runway orientation is generally planned so that landings and takeoffs occur
Answer
B. Against the wind direction
96
What is the correction to be applied to the basic runway length of 2000 m for an airport
site with 600 m rise in elevation above mean sea level, as per ICAO ?
Answer
A. 280 m increase
97
In a time-space diagram, the slope of the trajectory of a vehicle equal to
Answer
C. Speed of the vehicle
98
A 5 degree curve is situated in a broad gauge track with a ruling gradient of 1 in 200.
The actual ruling gradient allowing grade compensation for curvature is equal to
Answer
C. 0.3
99
The term “urban sprawl” refers to
Answer
B. The disorganized spread of urban areas
100
Which of the following is an example of a smart city component ?
Answer
D. Intelligent transport systems
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