| Post Name | ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 064/2026 |
| Category Code | 537/2025, 538/2025, 878/2025 |
| Date of Test | 8 July 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A steel rod tapers from 10 mm to 5 mm diameter over 100 mm. If total extension is limited to 0.4 mm, determine the maximum axial load. Take E = 2 Γ 10β΅ N/mmΒ².
Answer
A. 31.4 kN
2
What is the value of maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam of span
5 m subjected to UDL, if the maximum shear force is 50 kN?
Answer
B. 62.5 kNm
3
Maximum shear stress at the quarter span section of a simply supported beam subjected
to central concentrated load is 3 N/mm2. Find the central concentrated load, if the
cross-section is 100 Γ 200 mm.
Answer
C. 80 kN
4
Euler crippling load of a long column with both ends hinged is 100 kN. What is the
crippling load of a column with same material and length but with both ends fixed?
Answer
C. 400 kN
5
36
Choose the correct combination:
Retarder
Fly ash
Accelerator
Superplasticizer
Pozzolana
Gypsum
4
Workability
Calcium chloride
Answer
A. 1-R,2-S,3-P,4-Q
6
What is the static indeterminacy of a portal frame having one column end fixed and
other column end hinged? All the members are having same length and flexural rigidity.
Answer
B. 2
7
What is the relation between Rotation Factor (RF) and Distribution Factor (DF)?
Answer
B. RF = β0.5 DF
8
A propped cantilever beam of span 2 m carries a UDL of 20 kN/m throughout the
length. Find the prop reaction.
Answer
C. 15 kN
9
The maximum bending moment at a given section of a simply supported girder occurs
when a number of wheel loads moves from left to right of the girder is
Answer
A. Average load on the left of the section = Average load on the right of the section
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
A. ,
11
A vertical isosceles triangular gate with its vertex up has a height of 3 m and a base
width of 2 m. If the vertex of the gate is 2 m below the free water surface, find
the total pressure force on one side of the plate. Take specific weight of water as
10 kN/m3.
Answer
A. 120 kN
12
For a steady incompressible 2D flow, u = px β qy and v = ny β mx. The required condition is:
Answer
D. p + n = 0
13
In fluid flow, P is higher than Q; head loss is Hβ and total heads are Hβ and Hq. The flow takes place:
Answer
B. from Q to P, if Hβ + Hβ = Hq
14
A turbine develops 420 kW power under a net head of 20 m. If the overall efficiency of
the turbine is 0.84, then the discharge of water having specific weight 10 kN/m3 through
the turbine in m3/s is
Answer
C. 2.5
15
For a uniform flow in a rectangular channel, the depth of flow is 0.5 m and Froude
number is 2.0. Find the specific energy.
Answer
B. 1.5 m
16
The rainfall on five successive days on a catchment was 2 cm, 5 cm, 8 cm, 4 cm and
3 cm respectively. If the Ο-index for the storm can be assumed to be 3 cm/day, then the
total direct runoff from the catchment is
Answer
C. 8 cm
17
A direct runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm was triangular in shape with base
of 80 h and peak of 50 m3/s. If the catchment area is 180 km2, the rainfall excess in the
storm was
Answer
A. 4 cm
18
The base period of a particular crop is 100 days. If the duty is 1440 hectares/cumecs,
then the delta is about
Answer
D. 60 cm
19
The dilution method (tracer method) of stream gauging is ideally suited for measuring
discharges in
Answer
C. steady flow in a small turbulent stream
20
The volume of water that can be extracted by force of gravity from a unit volume of
aquifer material is called
Answer
A. Specific yield
21
In a closed traverse, the algebraic sum of latitudes should be
Answer
B. Zero
22
A benchmark fixed on the roof of a building has an RL of 112.500 m. During levelling,
a Back Sight of 1.850 m is taken on the benchmark using an inverted staff and a Force
Sight of 2.300 m is taken on ground point P. The RL of point P is
Answer
A. 108.350 m
23
A triangulation station is best located on
Answer
C. Elevated point with intervisibility
24
Total Station becomes ineffective if
Answer
B. Line of sight between the instrument and the prism is obstructed
25
Which remote sensing resolution determines the smallest object that can be identified?
Answer
C. Spatial resolution
26
The highest point on a mass haul diagram indicates
Answer
B. Maximum cut accumulated
27
A building costing `20 lakh has a scrap value of `2 lakh after 30 years.
Annual straight-line depreciation is
Answer
C. ` 60,000
28
Two buildings have the same construction cost. Can their valuations differ?
Answer
D. Location and income potential affect valuation
29
Which item is least likely to be measured in cubic meters?
Answer
D. Half-brick thick masonry
30
Measurement of the construction of seal coat for road work is measured in
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
Identify the statement which is not true. The process of cold working of steel
Answer
B. increases the ductility
32
The main function of alumina in brick earth is to
Answer
A. impart plasticity
33
As the fineness modulus of aggregate increases, its particle size
Answer
B. increases
34
The portion of a wall on which the end of an arch rests is known as
Answer
A. Abutment
35
For the durability of water tanks, the minimum grade of concrete shall be
Answer
C. M30
36
Choose the correct combination:
1. | Retarder P. | Fly ash
2. | Accelerator Q. | Superplasticizer
3. | Pozzolana R. | Gypsum
4. | Workability S. | Calcium chloride
Answer
A. 1-R,2-S,3-B4-Q
37
The lowest part of a structure which transmits the load to the soil is known as
Answer
C. Foundation
38
Temporary structures for workmen to construct high walls/columns is called
Answer
B. Scaffolding
39
Failure of a component or a structure due to several cycles of repeated loads is called
Answer
A. Fatigue failure
40
Which of the following chemicals causes rapid corrosion of steel reinforcement?
Answer
D. Chloride
41
Which among the following statements is not true about bar charts used in construction
planning?
Answer
D. The bar chart can show clearly the interdependencies among various activities
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42
Which among the following is a PERT event?
Answer
C. Electrical works completed
43
Calculate (i) variance and (ii) expected time for a construction activity based on the data
given below:
Optimistic time β 10 days
Pessimistic time β 22 days
Most likely time β 14 days
Answer
A. 4, 14.67
44
Resource allocation is done to
Answer
B. Reduce the fluctuations in resource demand and usage
45
The decisions of the arbitrator in disputes related to construction activities is
Answer
B. Having legal binding on both parties
46
Following options cannot be related to construction quality.
Answer
B. Increasing the variability
47
Who had developed quality trilogy of quality planning, quality control and quality
improvement which forms the basis of quality management?
Answer
D. Juran
48
Which of the following tools is used in quality management?
Answer
B. Fish bone diagram
49
In ABC analysis, A category materials are
Answer
C. High value materials in low quantities
50
In construction industry, liquidated damages refer to
Answer
C. Pre-agreed amount payable as compensation if a specific obligation is breached
51
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Answer
A. Check valve - To check water flow in all directions
52
The population equivalent of a city with average sewage flow - 100 Γ 106 L/day,
5-day BOD - 300 mg/L and 5-day BOD per capita - 0.075 kg/day is
Answer
D. 4,00,000
53
What is the correct sequence of formation of the following compounds during
chlorination of water in which ammonia is present?
1. NCI,
2. NH,Cl
3. NHC,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer
B. 2, 3, 1
54
In which method of population forecasting, increase in population from decade to
decade is assumed constant?
Answer
A. Arithmetical increase method
55
Flocculation of iron from water by addition of lime is an example of which of the
following process?
Answer
A. Chemical precipitation
56
Which of the following is not commonly used as a filter media in the treatment of
water?
Answer
C. Crushed rock
57
Which of the following is an anaerobic process for treating sewage?
Answer
B. Imhoff tank
58
The detention period of a septic tank is ______.
Answer
C. 12-36 hours
59
The correct relation between Theoretical Oxygen Demand (TOD), Biochemical Oxygen
Demand
Answer
A. TOD > COD > BOD
60
______ is formed in filters due to insufficient washing of sand grains.
Answer
A. Mud ball
61
According to IS 456:2000, the limit state method of design ensures that a structure
satisfies
Answer
C. Both strength and serviceability requirements throughout its design life
62
If the percentage of tensile reinforcement provided in a singly reinforced concrete beam
subjected to bending is less than the limiting percentage of tensile reinforcement, then
the beam is expected to exhibit
Answer
B. Yielding of tension reinforcement followed by crushing of concrete
63
According to IS 456:2000, the maximum design shear stress (Οc, max ) is specified to
prevent which of the following failure modes in a reinforcement concrete beam?
Answer
D. Crushing of the concrete web due to diagonal compressive stresses.
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64
A rectangular reinforced concrete beam of width 300 mm and effective depth
500 mm is subjected to a factored shear force of 180 kN. The design shear strength
of concrete is 0.60 N/mm2. According to IS 456:2000, for what shear force should the
shear reinforcement (stirrups) be designed?
Answer
B. 90 kN
65
According to IS 456:2000,when a tension reinforcement bar is curtailed in a reinforced
concrete beam, it must be extended beyond the theoretical cut-off point for a minimum
distance of
Answer
A. d or 12Ο, whichever is greater
66
A rectangular slab panel has effective spans of 3.9 m and 8.0 m and is simply supported
on all four sides. The main reinforcement should be provided predominantly along
Answer
B. 3.9 m span
67
IS 456:2000 limits the clear spacing between adjacent tension reinforcement bars in
reinforced concrete beams primarily to achieve which of the following objectives?
Answer
B. To limit the width of flexural cracks under service loads and enhance durability
68
A reinforced concrete column in an unbraced frame is fixed at its base and free at its
top. If the unsupported height of the column is 3.0 m, then the effective length of the
column for design purposes is
Answer
D. 6.0 m
69
A short tied reinforced concrete column having a gross cross-sectional area of
1,02,000 mm2 is reinforced with 2,000 mm2 of longitudinal steel reinforcement.
If M20 concrete and Fe 500 steel is used, then the ultimate axial load carrying capacity
of the column as per IS 456:2000 is
Answer
B. 1470 kN
70
A rectangular reinforced concrete column of size 300 mm Γ 400 mm is reinforced with
16 mm diameter longitudinal bars. The maximum permissible pitch of lateral ties as per
IS 456:2000 is
Answer
C. 256 mm
71
The minimum eccentricity to be considered in the design of RCC columns as per
IS 456 is
Answer
B. (L/500 + D/30) (minimum 20 mm)
72
An RCC column is considered short when
Answer
A. Slenderness ratio < 12
73
The heel slab of a cantilever retaining wall is located
Answer
C. On retained earth side
74
A circular slab supported along its circumference and subjected to UDL develops
Answer
C. Both radial and circumferential moments
75
Water retaining structures are generally designed using
Answer
A. Limit State Method only
76
Prestressing is the process of
Answer
B. Introducing compressive stress before loading
77
The permissible tensile stress in concrete for water tanks is restricted mainly to
Answer
B. Prevent cracking and leakage
78
A fillet weld is primarily subjected to
Answer
B. Shear stress
79
The primary tensile stress in a circular water tank wall is
Answer
B. Hoop tension
80
The purpose of shear connectors in composite beams is to
Answer
B. Prevent slip between steel and concrete
81
The percentage air voids (na) in a compacted soil is defined as
Answer
B. Ratio of volume of air to total volume of soil
82
For a cohesive backfill, the tensile stress at top of the wall is
Answer
B. β2C
83
The air content of a partially saturated soil is 40%, and then the degree of saturation
of the soil is
Answer
C. 60%
84
Which parameter is obtained from the slope of the virgin compression line in
an e-log p curve?
Answer
B. Compression index
85
Increasing the compactive effort generally results in
Answer
B. Higher MDD and Lower OMC
86
Ratio of ultimate bearing capacity of circular footing to that of strip footing, if the
diameter of circular footing and width of strip footing are same and having equal
depth is
Answer
Question Cancelled
87
The time factor for 50% consolidation is approximately
Answer
A. 0.197
88
During seepage through an earth dam, piping is most likely to occur when
Answer
D. Exit gradient exceeds critical hydraulic gradient
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89
A soil specimen fails in a direct shear test under a normal stress of 200 kPa and
shear stress of 130 kPa. Another specimen fails under normal stress of 400 kPa and
shear stress of 230 kPa. The cohesion of the soil is
Answer
A. 30 kPa
90
In a triaxial compression test on normally consolidated saturated clay under undrained
conditions, the pore pressure parameter A at failure is generally
Answer
C. Between 0.5 and 1.0
91
The speed-density relationship on a highway follows Greenshields' linear model.
If the free-flow speed is 80 km/h and the jam density is 160 veh/km, then the maximum
flow occurs at
Answer
B. 40 km/h
92
For a summit curve, the length of curve is governed by
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
A traffic engineer wishes to determine the optimum signal cycle length using Webster's
formula. If the total lost time per cycle is 12 s and the sum of critical flow ratios is 0.77,
then the optimum cycle length is
Answer
B. 100 s
94
For a flexible pavement designed using the CBR method, the design traffic is increased
from 20 msa to 80 msa while all other parameters remain unchanged. The pavement
thickness will
Answer
C. Increase but not in direct proportion to traffic
95
The equilibrium cant required for a BG railway curve is 120 mm. The cant actually
provided is 90 mm. The cant deficiency is
Answer
A. 30 mm
96
The principal advantage of transition curves in highway is
Answer
B. Gradual introduction of centrifugal force and superelevation
97
For airport runway numbering, a runway oriented approximately at magnetic heading
274Β° will be designated as
Answer
B. 27
98
A four-step transportation planning process includes trip generation, trip distribution,
modal split and traffic assignment. Which of the following is the correct sequence?
Answer
B. Trip generation β Trip distribution β Modal split β Traffic assignment
99
A traffic stream has an average speed of 72 km/h and an average spacing of 30 m
between successive vehicles. The corresponding traffic flow is
Answer
C. 2400 veh/h
100
Airport site is at MSL with level ground. The basic runway length is 2000 m.
The airport reference temperature is 45Β°C and the standard atmospheric temperature
at MSL is 15Β°C. What is the actual runway length?
Answer
C. 2600
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