| Post Name | ASSISTANT ENGINEER (KERALA STATE POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 004/2026 |
| Category Code | 357/2025 |
| Date of Test | 19 January 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements are true about any n Γ n matrices A and B ? (i) Rank
Answer
B. Rank
2
Suppose that a singular 3 Γ 3 matrix A has its trace (sum of diagonal entries) . If it is 2 ο©1 οΉ ο©2 οΉ οͺ οΊ also given that Av = οͺ1 οΊ for v = οͺ2οΊ , which are the possible eigenvalues of A? οͺ οΊ οͺο«2οΊο» οͺο«4 οΊο» 1
Answer
A. 1, 0,
3
What is the coefficient of xβ in the Taylor series expansion of ri oe x at 0? 3 A) β B) 0O
Answer
C. β
4
Find the Laplace transform of cos2 2t : 18 s2 +
Answer
B. s + 36s s3 + 16s s
5
If the Laplace transforms of the solutions of a second order homogenous linear 1 2 differential equation with constant coefficients are given by and , find out the sβ3 s+5 differential equation :
Answer
B. yβ²β² + 2 yβ² β 15 y =
6
Solution of the differential equation yβ +5xβy= Qxe* is:
Answer
D. (C+x*)e* . 22Β° -3 . . .
7
Evaluate the complex integral ο² (z β 2 )( 2 z β 1) dz , where C is the unit circle C z = 1 taken in the counter clockwise sense :
Answer
C. 4Ο i
8
The complex function f ( z ) = z 2 + z is :
Answer
D. not analytic at origin but imaginary part is harmonic
9
The constant term in the Fourier cosine series expansion of f ( x ) = sin 2 x in the interval
Answer
A. 2
10
Which ο² of the following is the scalar potential of the vector valued function f ( x , y) = ( x 2 β 4 xy ) i + 2x 2 j ? x3 x3
Answer
D. Scalar potential does not exist 3
11
Gypsum is added to cement to prevent :
Answer
C. Flash Setting
12
According to IS 10262-2019, High strength concrete is the concrete that has characteristic compressive strength of :
Answer
B. 65 N/mm2 and above
13
Retrofitting methods used in damaged RC structures after an earthquake is :
Answer
D. All the above
14
A bar of diameter 30 mm is subjected to a tensile load such that the measured extension on a gauge length of 200 mm is 0.09 mm and the change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. Poissonβs ratio of the material will be :
Answer
D. 1/3
15
A cantilever beam of span 4 m, width 0.3 m and 0.4 m depth is subjected to a concentrated load of 12 kN at the free end. Neglecting self-weight, the maximum bending stress at a fixed end will be :
Answer
C. 6.0 N/mm2
16
A simply supported beam
Answer
A. of span 5 m and breadth 230 mm and depth 400 mm is subjected to a concentrated load of 10 kN on the midspan. Another identical beam
17
When the workability of concrete is very high, the preferred test for measurement of workability is :
Answer
C. Flow test
18
In RC design, for reinforcements bars in compression the value of bond stress for bars in tension may be increased by :
Answer
C. 25%
19
As per IS 800-2007, the design strength of tension member corresponding to gross section yielding is given by :
Answer
A. f y A g / Ξ³ m0
20
The class 10 bricks, when tested after immersion in cold water for 24 hours, water absorption shall not be more than __________ percent by weight.
Answer
C. 20%
21
In steel beams, lateral tensional buckling occurs when :
Answer
Question Cancelled
22
In a built-up compression member with double laced system, the lacing bars must be designed to resist :
Answer
C. 2.5% of the total axial force in the main member
23
A residential building has a plinth area of 200 m2. The plinth area rate is Rs.2500/m2. The annual rent expected is Rs. 50,000. If the rate of interest is 5% per annum, the capitalized value of the property is approximately Rs. :
Answer
C. 10,00,000
24
For an activity in a PERT network with optimistic time 4 days, most likely time 6 days and pessimistic time 10 days, the expected duration of the activity is :
Answer
B. 6.33 days
25
A T-section is formed by a flange 100 mm Γ 10 mm placed on a web 10 mm Γ 100 mm. The distance of centre of gravity from base of the web (in mm) is :
Answer
D. 77.5
26
A sight length of 1000 m is taken in differential levelling. Calculate the combined correction for curvature and refraction :
Answer
B. β 0.067 m
27
The number of satellites required for 3-D positioning in GPS :
Answer
C. 4
28
A small orifice is discharging under a constant head. If the head is quadrupled, the theoretical discharge will :
Answer
A. Double
29
The specific speed of a turbine increases with :
Answer
Question Cancelled
30
The area under a unit hydrograph represents :
Answer
C. Unit runoff
31
Specific yield of an unconfined aquifer is always :
Answer
B. Less than porosity
32
The void ratio of a soil sample is 0.8 and the specific gravity of solids is 2.7. What is the porosity of the soil?
Answer
B. 0.44
33
The time for a clay layer to achieve 90% consolidation is 20 years. The time required to achieve 90% consolidation in the clay layer of half thickness is :
Answer
B. 5 years
34
The most reliable field test for determining bearing capacity of soil for shallow foundations is :
Answer
B. Plate Load Test
35
Vibro-compaction is most effective for :
Answer
C. Clean saturated sands
36
The headlight sight distance is mainly used for the design of :
Answer
C. Valley curves
37
If traffic density is 30 veh/km and space mean speed is 60 km/h, then the flow in vehicles per hour is :
Answer
D. 1800
38
A train at 90 km/h requires equilibrium cant of 100 mm and an actual cant of 75 mm. Then the cant deficiency is :
Answer
D. 25
39
The best shape of a tunnel (sewer) for carrying sewage is :
Answer
C. Egg-shaped
40
Airport site is at MSL with level ground. The basic runway length is 2000 m. The airport reference temperature is 45Β°C, and the standard atmospheric temperature at MSL is 15Β°C. What is the actual runway length?
Answer
C. 2600
41
Initial dissolved oxygen and the 5th day dissolved oxygen of a wastewater sample is 8 mg/L and 5 mg/L respectively (5 ml of the wastewater sample was taken in the BOD bottle). Calculate the 5th day BOD:
Answer
C. 180 mg/L
42
The ratio of friction factor and coefficient of friction used in the general equation for determining head loss in a pipe is :
Answer
D. 4.0
43
The permissible limit of total hardness
Answer
D. 600
44
The maximum velocity in a circular sewer is obtained :
Answer
B. The depth of flow is 0.81 times full depth
45
The value of Biochemical Oxygen Demand
Answer
A. Nil
46
The effluent coming from a septic tank are discharged into :
Answer
D. Soak pit
47
The process of removal of oil and grease from wastewater is known as :
Answer
C. Skimming
48
The value pH = 3 when compared to pH = 5 will be more acidic by :
Answer
C. 100 times
49
The coagulant used in water treatment process when the pH of the water sample is in the range 4 to 7 is :
Answer
A. Chlorinated Copperas
50
A 12.5 mL of treated wastewater requires 187.5 mL of odour-free distilled water to reduce the odour to a level that is just perceptible. What is the Threshold Odour Number (TON) for the wastewater sample :
Answer
B. 16
51
The work done by the pump to lift 0.1m3/s of water to a height of 10 m is (Neglect frictional loss and other losses and assume the value of unit weight of water as 10 kN/m3) :
Answer
C. 10 kW
52
What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose solution?
Answer
B. 320 mg/L
53
According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in India for industrial areas, which of the following correctly matches a pollutant with its prescribed 24-hour average concentration limit?
Answer
D. Ammonia (NH3) β 400 ΞΌ g/m3
54
The greenhouse effect primarily refers to :
Answer
B. The natural process where certain gases in the atmosphere trap heat radiated from the Earthβs surface
55
The dispersion pattern (plume behaviour) of pollutants emitted from a stack is determined by the prevailing atmospheric stability. Match the plume type listed in Column I with its correct atmospheric condition and characteristic as described in Column II. Column I Column II (Plume Type)
Answer
A. tmospheric Condition and Characteristic) I. Lofting Plume 1. Occurs under extreme inversion; plume spreads only horizontally with minimal vertical mixing II. Fanning Plume 2. Results from a surface inversion with super- adiabatic conditions above the stack; excellent dispersion with no ground contact III. Fumigating 3. Caused by an inversion layer above the stack and Plume unstable conditions below; pollutants are forced downward to the ground IV. Trapping Plume 4. Occurs when inversion layers exist both above and below the stack, confining the plume vertically between them V. Looping Plume 5. Associated with super-adiabatic (highly unstable) conditions; exhibits a wavy, undulating pattern with potential for high ground-level concentrations Choose the correct matching sequence from the options below :
56
A new cement plant is being designed to meet stringent particulate emission standards. The primary dust source is the rotary kiln exhaust, which contains a high concentration of fine particles (predominantly in the 1β10 ΞΌ m range) at a temperature of 120Β°C. The plant requires a final control device with a collection efficiency greater than 99% and minimal secondary waste generation. Based on typical engineering criteria-collection efficiency, applicable particle size range, and operational constraints-which of the following air pollution control devices would be the LEAST suitable choice for this application?
Answer
C. Cyclone Separator
57
What is the approximate per capita generation rate of municipal solid waste in India?
Answer
C. 0.5 kg/day
58
What does the C/N ratio refer to in the context of composting, and what is its optimal range?
Answer
A. Carbon/Nitrogen ratio; 30:1
59
What is the main objective of βsource reductionβ in solid waste management?
Answer
B. To minimize the amount of waste generated at the origin
60
What is the role of the βState Advisory Bodyβ constituted under the Solid Waste Management rules, 2016?
Answer
B. Advise State Government on policy and implementation
61
As per the safety guide (2021) of Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, βLong-lived Wasteβ refers to radioactive waste that contains significant levels of radionuclides with half-life :
Answer
B. Greater than 30 years
62
Resin identification Code β5β corresponds to which plastic resin type?
Answer
B. Polypropylene
63
Which of the following statements is true for the ambient air quality standards in respect of noise as per the Noise Pollution Rules 2000?
Answer
C. The limit for noise in silence zone for day time is 50 dB(
64
Identify the cause for bleaching of corals :
Answer
C. Expulsion of zooxanthellae
65
Which of the following Shared Socioeconomic Pathways (SSPs) of the Assessment Report 6 of IPCC represents the scenario: βMiddle of the Road (Medium challenges to mitigation and adaptation)β?
Answer
A. SSP1
66
Which of the following statements is/are true?
Answer
D. None of the above
67
Which of the following is/are true with respect to the second commitment period of the Kyoto protocol?
Answer
A. Parties committed to reduce GHG emissions by at least 18% below 1990 levels
68
In COP26, the participants joining the Global Methane Pledge agreed to take voluntary actions to contribute to a collective effort to reduce global methane emissions :
Answer
C. Atleast 30 percent from 2020 levels by 2030
69
The broad technical correspondences of which all standards are identified in the Annex B of ISO 14001:2004 (E) ?
Answer
B. ISO 14001:2004 and ISO 9001:2000
70
____________ in relation to any factory or premises, means the person who has control over the affairs of the factory or the premises and includes, in relation to any substance, the person in possession of the substance as per the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1987.
Answer
C. Occupier
71
If the IGBC rating for a green home (multi-dwelling residential unit) is 68, identify its certification and recognition :
Answer
D. Silver certified, Outstanding performance
72
Heat transfer fluids in solar energy systems in cold climate should possess which of the following properties :
Answer
A. Low freezing point and low viscosity
73
An Emission Reduction Unit (ERU) is a trading unit under the Kyoto Protocol emissions trading scheme is generated by which of the following Kyoto mechanism/mechanisms?
Answer
A. Joint implementation
74
Which of the following is a Negative Emission Technology?
Answer
C. Both
75
The ratio of pollutant concentration in the plant parts to that in the media is known as :
Answer
C. Bioconcentration Factor
76
Choose the correct statements from the following : For a system at stable thermodynamic equilibrium (i) satisfy the criteria for mechanical, thermal and chemical equilibrium (ii) there will be a transport of momentum and mass (iii) all gradients external or internal are nonexistent βE β2E (iv) = 0; >0 βx β x2 βE β2E (v) = 0; <0 βx β x2
Answer
A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
77
In refrigeration and air conditioning, large volumes of vapour and gas are pumped using :
Answer
B. Steam-jet ejectors
78
Match the following terms in column I with the appropriate one given in column II. : Column I Column II P. Joule Thomson effect I. A = E β TS Q. Work function II. F = H β TS R. Gibbβs free energy III. H remains constant S. Triple point IV. Degrees of freedom is zero
Answer
D. P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
79
Consider the following statements regarding chemical potential : (i) It is an intensive property (ii) For a pure substance, it increases with temperature (iii) It is expressed in Joule/kg of the substance (iv) It decreases when the pressure increases Choose the correct answer from the above statements.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
80
The unit of rate constant of an nβ order reaction is :
Answer
B. (concentration)!~"/ (time)
81
A liquid phase reaction P β Q β R, with rate constants k1 and k2 respectively, is conducted in a batch reactor. The time at which maximum concentration of Q can be obtained and the corresponding concentration of Q, are respectively given by :
Answer
A. tmax = ln ( k2 / k1 ) /( k2 β k1 ), CQ , max = C p0 ( k1 / k2 ) k2 /( k2 βk1 )
82
Consider, a reversible reaction, 2NH3 β N 2 + 3H2 . Select the correct statements about this reaction from the following : p. The forward reaction is having elementary biomolecular reaction mechanism q. Reverse reaction is elementary r. Principle of microreversibility is applicable s. The reaction is non-elementary
Answer
D. s only
83
An irreversible reaction A β R , is carried out in a mixed flow reactor with a space time of 2 minutes and an initial concentration of A as 5 moles/litre.The concentration of A is now increased to 10 moles/litre. The new space time is:
Answer
C. 4 minutes
84
According to Weisz-Prater criterion for a first order reaction when Cwp << 1 :
Answer
A. no concentration gradient exists within the pellet
85
The best reactor scheme for conducting an autocatalytic reaction is :
Answer
C. MFR followed by PFR
86
It is proposed to remove a solute from a gas by a countercurrent operation with a liquid solvent. This operation is then conducted by absorption with chemical reaction. For this reaction, kg a=0.8mol/(h.m3.Pa), k1 a=25hβ1, H=3000(Pa.m3)/mol where kg and kl is the gas and liquid film mass transfer coefficient respectively. H is the Henryβs law constant. For this reaction :
Answer
B. The major resistance is in the liquid film
87
The Baume gravity scale for liquids heavier than water is defined as :
Answer
A. Degree Baume = 145 β sp. gravity at 288 K / 288 K
88
Match the following : a. Cox chart e. Equal pressure reference substance plots b. Duhring plot f. Equal temperature reference plots d ln p S Ξ» c. Antoine equation g. = dT RT 2 B d. Clapeyron equation h. ln P S = A β T βC
Answer
C. e,
89
In a reaction, 50% of reactant A fed is converted to a desired product R and an undesired product S. 60% of A that converted gives R and the rest S. Then the yield and selectivity are
Answer
Question Cancelled
90
The slacking index of coal is :
Answer
B. an indication of its size stability when stored, exposed to weather
91
1000 kg of soap produced contains 40% moisture on a wet basis. Before it can be pressed into cakes for sale, the moisture should be reduced to 20%. How many 125 g cakes can be pressed from the wet soap?
Answer
A. 6000
92
Calorific value of a fuel is same as :
Answer
C. Negative of the heat of combustion
93
A binary distillation column separates 100 kmol/h a feed containing 40 mol% benzene and 60 mol% toluene at 101.3 kPa. It is desired to produce a distillate containing 90 mol% benzene. If a reflux ratio of 4 is used, the amount of residue is :
Answer
B. 80 kmol/h
94
The standard heats of formation for HCl(g), NH3(g) and NH4Cl(g) are β92.31 kJ/mol, β46.19 kJ/mol and β314.43 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of reaction of the following reaction is : HCl + NH3 β NH4Cl
Answer
D. β175.93 kJ/mol
95
For a liquid fuel, the performance number is related to :
Answer
C. the detonation tendency
96
Match the following : P. Ultimate analysis I. Heat capacity of solids Q. Proximate analysis II. C, H2, O2, N2, S, ash R. Troutonβs ratio III. Heat supplied to the absolute temperature S. Koppβs rule IV. Moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon, ash V. Latent heat of vapourization to the normal boiling point
Answer
B. P-II, Q-IV, R-V, S-I
97
In paper industry, the moisture content of paper is measured by measuring :
Answer
D. electrical conductivity
98
Dead zone of an instrument is :
Answer
C. the largest change in variable that does not produce a change in the reading
99
Choose the right one :
Answer
A. Pitot tube has negligible pressure loss
100
Match the terms in column I with column II Column I Column II (i) Fidelity
Answer
D. Zero order
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