| Post Name | Assistant Engineer - Kerala State Pollution Control Board |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 073/2022 |
| Category Code | 124/2021 |
| Date of Test | 28 June 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The rank of the matrix A = 8 4 6 is
2 1 1.5
Answer
C. 1
2
If A = , then the Eigen values of 2A2 is
3 2
Answer
B. 2, 50
3
If u = tan⁻¹[(x³ + y³)/(x + y)], then x(∂u/∂x) + y(∂u/∂y) is
Answer
D. sin 2u
4
The rectangular solid of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a given sphere is
Answer
D. cube
–– ––
5
The vector field F defined by F = 2xyz^i + x2z3^j + 3x2yz2k^ is
Answer
B. rotational
6
The particular integral of (D − 2)²y = 8(e²ˣ + sin 2x + x²) is
Answer
B. 4x²e²ˣ + cos 2x + 2x² + 4x + 3
7
(z –
Answer
C. 0
8
The Laplace transform of (cos 2t − cos 3t)/t is
Answer
A. (1/2) log[(s² + 9)/(s² + 4)]
9
The sum of residues of the function f(z) = z²/[(z − 1)²(z + 2)] is
Answer
B. 1
10
The Fourier series for the function f(x) = x², −π < x < π is
Answer
A. π²/3 − 4(cos x/1² − cos 2x/2² + cos 3x/3² − cos 4x/4² + …)
11
A simply supported beam I carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam II
carries the same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of
maximum deflections for I and II will be
Answer
C. 8/5
12
A body is said to be in equilibrium if,
Answer
Question Cancelled
13
For the principal axes of a section
Answer
C. Product of inertia is zero.
14
The maximum compressive strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre in
bending is
Answer
B. 0.0035
15
According to IS 456-2000 the modulus of elasticity of concrete is
Answer
C. directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
16
For a simply supported beam of span 8 m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the
vertical deflection limits should be
Answer
A. 400 mm
17
Out of the following, select the most suitable type of bolt that can be used, when the bolts
are subjected to reversal of stresses.
Answer
D. High strength bolt
18
Horizontal stiffener is provided in a plate girder to safe guard against
Answer
B. Compression buckling of web plate
19
The main function of alumina in brick earth is
Answer
A. To impart plasticity
20
Le-Chateliers equipment is used for determining the
Answer
B. Soundness of cement
21
A crack is formed in a RCC beam, when the material exceeds
Answer
C. modulus of rupture
22
The type of pile recommended in places where the soil is soft and that reduces the risk of
liquefaction
Answer
D. Vibro pile
23
Which one of the following represents an event ?
Answer
B. Concrete cured
24
The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding
and succeeding activities is known as
Answer
D. Independent float
25
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
Answer
D. None of the above.
26
Consistency of cohesive soils is related to its
Answer
B. Moisture content
27
Sheep foot rollers are best suited for compacting which type of soil ?
Answer
B. Cohesive soils
28
In Mohr’s circle, a point located above Mohr’s envelope shows
Answer
A. Imaginary condition
29
A wall is acted upon by pressure due to water on one side. If w is the specific weight and H is the height of liquid, total pressure on the wall per unit length is
Answer
C. wH²/2
30
The use of a surge tank is
Answer
D. All of the above
073/2022 6 A
31
A standard Cipoletti weir is ______ in shape.
Answer
C. Trapezoidal
32
For highway capacity design, what are the studies needed ?
Answer
C. Speed and volume studies
33
In concrete pavements, tie bars are used in which joints ?
Answer
D. Longitudinal joints
34
Mention the test done to find the extent of weathering of aggregates in a lab.
Answer
A. Soundness test
35
The central location of bubble in a levelling instrument means the axis of the bubble tube
is parallel to
Answer
A. Line of sight
36
Which method is used to locate the position of a station with reference to three known
points ?
Answer
D. Three-point problem
37
Solution of Three point problems can be obtained by
Answer
D. All of the above
38
Infiltration capacity depends upon
Answer
D. All the above.
39
The rim of a standard rain gauge is ___ above ground level.
Answer
C. 30 cm
40
The ratio of the volume of water retained by the formation after it has been drained under
gravity to the total volume of formation is known as
Answer
D. specific retention
A 7 073/2022
41
Coliforms which are the indicator organisms for microbiological pollution are
Answer
B. Gram – ve bacilli
42
Kjeldahl Nitrogen is a measure of
Answer
A. Ammonia & Organic Nitrogen
43
30 ml of sample is pipetted directly to 300 ml incubation bottle. The initial DO of the
diluted sample is 8 mg/L and final DO is 1 mg/L. The initial DO of the dilution water is
9 mg/L and final DO is 8 mg/L. The temperature of incubation is 20°C for 5 days. What
is the 5 day BOD of the sample ?
Answer
C. 61 mg/L
44
For slow sand filters the effective size of the sand ranges from
Answer
D. 0.25 mm – 0.35 mm
45
Colloids become destabilized when
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
On analysis for coliform group using 3 samples of 10 mL, 50 mL and 500 mL by
membrane filter technique the results obtained are: 10 mL portion- 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; 50 mL
portion- 30, 35, 26, 36, 38; and 500 mL portion- 300, 380, 340, 360, 320. The number of
coliforms per 100 mL is
Answer
B. 66
47
Oxidation of nitrites to nitrates is done by
Answer
A. Nitrobacter
48
Form of chlorine, which can prevent the formation of disinfection by products
Answer
Question Cancelled
49
Determination of chemical elements that compose the solid waste is known as
Answer
C. Ultimate analysis
50
Type 2 settling is also known as
Answer
D. Flocculent settling
51
Maximum runoff will be obtained for a rain having duration equal to
Answer
A. Time of concentration
52
A city has a population of 20000 with an area of 1000000 Square metres. The average
runoff coefficient is 0.72 and time of concentration 30 minutes. The maximum storm
water discharge is
Answer
D. 4 Cumecs
53
Streeter-Phelps equation gives
Answer
C. Dissolved oxygen deficit
54
Dairy wastes are mainly treated by
Answer
C. Activated sludge process
55
Major component contributing to total solids in Sulfite waste liquor is
Answer
D. Lignin
56
The atmosphere is said to be unstable when
Answer
C. Environmental lapse rate > Adiabatic lapse rate
57
“Fanning” the spreading of plume horizontally occurs when the lapse rate is
Answer
A. Negative
58
Which among the following control device has the maximum particulate removal
efficiency ?
Answer
C. Fabric Filter
59
The process of heating the solid wastes in an oxygen free atmosphere splitting the
organic substances through thermal cracking and condensation is
Answer
D. Pyrolysis
60
According to IS 10500:2012, the acceptable limit of turbidity is
Answer
A. 1 NTU
61
The most common disposal method for nuclear waste is:
Answer
D. Burial in concrete containers
62
The unit of frequency of sound is:
Answer
B. Hertz (Hz)
63
Itai-Itai disease is caused by the heavy metal:
Answer
A. Cadmium
64
When the rate of deoxygenation is more than the rate of reaeration,
Answer
C. DO deficit increases
65
Which of the following sets out the criteria for an environmental management system and
can be certified to ?
Answer
B. ISO 14001
66
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:
Answer
A. reduce greenhouse gas emissions
67
The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to:
Answer
B. protect ozone layer
68
What is the unit for Carbon footprint ?
Answer
A. tonnes of CO2 equivalent
69
According to the environmental clearance process in India, Environmental Impact
Assessment is not needed for projects which fall under:
Answer
C. Category B2
70
Which of the following Acts came into existence in India, to enact the decisions made in
the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm in June,
1972, in which India participated ?
Answer
D. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
71
The process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide is called:
Answer
D. Carbon sequestration
72
How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been adopted as 2030 Agenda ?
Answer
C. 17
73
Which of the following is a popular Green building rating system, developed in India ?
Answer
D. GRIHA
74
The permissible limit of lead (Pb) in drinking water as per IS 10500:2012 is:
Answer
A. 0.01 mg/l
75
Using of plants to clean up contaminated environments is called:
Answer
B. Phytoremediation
76
Molarity of aqueous solution of acetic acid containing 30 weight percentage acid if
density of solution is 1 g/cc is
Answer
A. 5
77
Wet leather with moisture content 60% enters a drier and leaves with 10% moisture. If
output from the drier is 100 kg/h, amount of water removed in kg/h is
Answer
D. 125
A 11 073/2022
78
Relative humidity of air can decrease in spite of increase in humidity if
Answer
B. temperature is increased
79
At low concentration of a gas in a liquid, which of the following laws is most
appropriate ?
Answer
B. Henry’s law
80
Heat required to raise temperature of 1 kg solution, with mean specific heat capacity
3.5 kJ/kgK), from 300 K to 400 K is______
Answer
D. 350 kJ
81
Boiling point of a heterogeneous mixture is
Answer
C. less than boiling point of all the components
82
Temperature at which equilibrium vapour pressure of a liquid equals existing partial
pressure of vapour in a mixture is the mixture’s
Answer
A. dew point
83
Components A and B react to form product C, as per the reaction, A + B C. Heat of
combustion for A, B and C are respectively 330 kcal, 200 kcal and 500 kcal. Standard
heat of the reaction is
Answer
A. 30 kcal
84
Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel, attained by burning the fuel with theoretically
required amount of pure Oxygen is 1215 K. If theoretically required amount of air is used
instead of pure Oxygen, the flame temperature can be
Answer
C. less than 1215 K
85
Pressure drop in a packed bed for high Reynolds number is given by
Answer
B. Burke Plummer equation
86
Third law of thermodynamics states that
Answer
D. At absolute zero, entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero
87
If two Mixed Flow Reactors in series are used for a second order reaction, which of the
following arrangements will perform better ?
Answer
A. Smaller reactor first, followed by a larger reactor
88
The reaction 2A + B → C is a zero-order reaction. If C_A and C_B are concentrations of A and B respectively and k is the rate constant, the rate can be given by
Answer
D. −r_A = k
89
For a system at temperature T and pressure P, any movement away from equilibrium leads to
Answer
B. (ΔG)_{T,P} > 0
90
An isothermal gas phase reaction, R 4P, 50% inert is present in the system. Fractional
change in volume, A in this case is
Answer
B. 1.5
91
Pick out wrong statement.
Answer
D. For all reactions, thermodynamic information alone is sufficient for design.
92
Constant volume hydrometer is used to measure
Answer
A. density
93
Pirani gauge is used for the measurement of
Answer
B. high vacuum
94
Which of the following cannot be used for composition analysis ?
Answer
A. hydrometer
95
If a reaction proceeds with increase in number of moles, presence of inert in the system
will
Answer
A. increase equilibrium yield
96
Steps involved in a Carnot cycle are
Answer
B. Two isothermal and two isentropics
97
Which of the following is an extensive property ?
Answer
C. entropy
98
For a system consisting of ‘p’ phases and ‘c’ components, if number of independent
reactions involved are ‘r’, number of degrees of freedom is given by
Answer
D. F = c – p – r + 2
99
Negative value of Joule -Thomson co-efficient indicates
Answer
B. Increase in temperature of gas on throttling
100
If 14 g of nitrogen and 4 g of hydrogen undergo reaction to produce ammonia, the
product stream contains
Answer
C. 1 g hydrogen and 17 g ammonia
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