| Post Name | Assistant Engineer - Kerala Water Authority |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 024/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 317/2024 |
| Date of Test | 15 March 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
If the length of a bar is doubled while keeping the cross-sectional area and the force constant, the strain energy stored will
Answer
Question Cancelled
2
The stiffness of an open-coil helical spring is inversely proportional to
Answer
A. The mean coil diameter
3
An influence line for bending moment at a section of a simply supported beam is
Answer
A. A triangle
4
A three-hinged arch is
Answer
C. Statically determinate
5
The pressure head, in meters of mercury, equivalent to the pressure head of 136m of water is
Answer
A. 10
6
In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel, the sequent depths are 1.5 m and 0.5 m. The energy loss in this jump is about
Answer
B. 0.33 m
7
A rainfall of 1.4 cm occurred in a 5-hour storm. If the Φ index was 0.2 cm/hour, the rainfall excess is
Answer
C. 0.4 cm
8
If a crop requires a total depth of 1 m of water for a base period of 100 days, then the duty in hectares/cumecs is about
Answer
A. 864
9
From the depreciation methods given below, Select the correct method in which the property is studied in detail and loss in value due to life, wear and tear, decay, obsolescence are worked out. Each and every step of this method is based on some logical ground without any fixed percentage of the cost of the property.
Answer
D. Quantity survey method
10
As per the detailed specification for the Reinforced Cement Concrete (R.C.C.) work, choose the correct angle to be given at the end of the concrete laying, if the laying is suspended for rest or the following day.
Answer
C. 30°
11
In remote sensing, compared with the Multi Spectral Scanner (MSS) the spectral resolution of Hyper Spectral Scanner (HSS) is
Answer
A. always higher
12
If h is the level difference between two points A and B, then the error due to slope for the length measured on slope is
Answer
B. Directly proportional to
13
A material trading company receives an order for 200 tonnes of cement. The annual carrying cost is Rs. 2000 per ton and the cost for placing the order is Rs. 24500. What is the economic order quantity ?
Answer
B. 70 t per order
14
What is the target strength for mix proportioning a concrete of strength M 80 ?
Answer
D. 89.9 MPa
15
Covermeter and profometers are used to measure :
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
16
The diameter of reinforcing bars shall not exceed _____ of the total thickness of the slab as per IS 456-2000
Answer
D. One eighth
17
The total area of side face reinforcement provided in a beam shall be not less than 0.1% of the web area and shall be distributed equally on two faces at a spacing not exceeding 300mm or ______ whichever is less as per IS 456-2000
Answer
A. Web thickness
18
The nominal cover to meet durability requirements for extreme exposure conditions as per IS 456-2000
Answer
A. Not less than 75mm
19
The partial safety factor adopted for bolts friction type (field fabrications) as per IS 800-2007.
Answer
B. 1.25
20
For the determination of earth pressure, Coulomb's wedge theory assumes that
Answer
C. The wall surface is rough
21
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ? A. Boussinesq's theory is used for the analysis of stratified soil. B. The inclination of stable slope in cohesive soil can be greater than its angle of internal friction. C. When the water content of soil lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit the soil is said to be in plastic state. D. For saturated dense fine sand, after applying overburden correction, if the Standard Penetration test value exceeds 15, dilatancy correction is to be applied.
Answer
A. A
22
A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesionless soil (c=0) specimen under a normal stress of 100 kN/m². The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100 kN/m². The angle of internal friction of the soil is
Answer
B. 45
23
A test plate 30 cm × 30 cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10 mm under a certain loading intensity. A footing 150 cm × 200 cm resting on the same sand deposit and loaded to the same load intensity settles by
Answer
C. 27.8 mm
24
The maximum permissible impact value of aggregates for water bound macadam base course as per IRC is
Answer
A. 40%
25
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in
Answer
B. June 2015
26
Which of the following statements is correct regarding two-force and three-force systems ? i. Both two-force and three-force members can exert moments on a body. ii. Only two-force members exert moments on a body. iii. In a three-force system, the forces do not always maintain equilibrium. iv. A three-force system can achieve equilibrium if all forces are parallel and act in the same direction.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
27
Which of the following statements is true regarding the moment of forces acting on a body ? i. The total moment of all forces acting on a body is the algebraic sum of their moments ii. The total moment of all forces acting on a body is the vector sum of their moments. iii. The moment axis is perpendicular to the plane formed by the force and the perpendicular distance. iv. In moment calculation, the moment axis, force and perpendicular distance lie along a single line in the direction of the force.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
28
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the equilibrium of a body ? i. The conditions for equilibrium are applicable universally. ii. The conditions for equilibrium are valid only when the forces are collinear. iii. Free body diagrams have no role in equilibrium calculations. iv. There are various types of beam supports and their number is unlimited.
Answer
A. Only i and iv
29
What is the coordination number of atoms in a face-centered cubic (FCC) structure ?
Answer
C. 12
30
In an iron-carbon phase diagram, which phase exists at a composition of 0.8% carbon at eutectoid temperature ?
Answer
A. Pearlite
31
The nose of a TTT curve corresponds to which phenomenon ?
Answer
A. Maximum rate of transformation
32
If the Poisson's ratio of a material is 0.3, which of the following is correct ?
Answer
B. Lateral strain is 30% of axial strain
33
The Involute profile is preferred to cycloidal shape for the profile of commercial gears, because
Answer
B. Only one curve is required to cut
34
The type of gears used to transmit power between two non parallel non intersecting axes shafts is
Answer
C. Hypoid gears
35
The rate of decay in an oscillating system is called as
Answer
D. Logarithmic decrement
36
Damping force in viscous damping is proportional to ___ of the vibrating body.
Answer
A. Velocity
37
What is the particular solution of an oscillation equation of a single degree of freedom system excited by a force F₀ cos(ωt)?
Answer
B. xₚ = X cos(ωt)
38
If the damper is not provided and the system is in resonance, which of the following is the correct transmissibility ?
Answer
D. Infinite
39
Which of the following is true in the case of velocity and shear variation across the cross-section of a circular pipe for a laminar viscous flow ?
Answer
D. Velocity varies parabolically and shear stress varies linearly
40
A pipe of outside diameter 30mm is to be given an insulation sheathing. If the convective heat transfer coefficient to the surroundings is 10 w/m°C , the maximum value of thermal conductivity of the insulting material should be
Answer
A. 0.15 w/m°C
41
Pick out the false statement from the following.
Answer
A. The thermal conductivity of a material is based on lattice vibrational waves and does not depend on migration of free electrons.
42
A hydraulic turbine runs at 250 rpm with an available head of 40m. If the overall efficiency is 80% and discharge 10 / , what would be the power if the available head drops to 20m ? (Assume g as 10 m/ )
Answer
Question Cancelled
43
Two identical pipes of diameter 'd' connected in parallel are to be replaced by another single pipe of same length and with same frictional coefficient, but with diameter 'D'. Which of the following holds true?
Answer
A. (D/d)⁵ = 4
44
How much heat will be conducted in five hours through a composite wall of surface area 2 and having three layers with thicknesses 60cm, 30cm, 25cm having thermal conductivities 0.3kcal/hrm°c, 0.1 kcal/hrm°c and 0.25kcal/hrm°c respectively if the inner and outer temperatures of the composite wall are 950°c and 110°c ?
Answer
C. 1400 kcal
45
A grinding ratio of 100 implies that
Answer
B. Grinding wheel wears 0.01 times the volume of the material removed
46
Interpolater in a CNC machine
Answer
B. Coordinates axes movements
47
In a casting process, a vertical channel through which molten metal flows downwards from pouring basin to runner for reaching the mold cavity is called
Answer
C. Spure
48
An organizational behaviour would be least likely to be used to focus on which of the following problem ?
Answer
C. A decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition
49
What is the primary meaning of organisation structure ?
Answer
D. The way in which activities are controlled and performed in a simplified manner
50
Which of the following methods provides the highest heat flux (W/ )
Answer
A. Laser beam welding
51
The terminal settling velocity of a spherical particle (density = 1180 kg/m³, diameter = 100 micron), in gravitational settling under Stroke's regime in water (density = 1000 kg/m³, viscosity = 10⁻³ Pa s) is
Answer
C. 0.98 mm/s
52
In a mixing tank operating at a Reynolds number greater than 4000, if the diameter of impeller is doubled with all other conditions remaining the same, the power requirement increases by a factor of
Answer
B. 32
53
For a cyclone separator of diameter 0.3 m with a tangential velocity of 15 m/s at the wall, the separation factor is (acceleration due to gravity may be taken as 10 m/s²)
Answer
A. 150
54
A continuous grinder obeying Bond's law grinds a solid of 9mm diameter to 1 mm size at a rate of 1000kg/h. If the product requirement is changed to a smaller size of 0.25 mm diameter, for the same power input the product output rate will be _____ kg/h
Answer
D. 400
55
Which of the following correctly describes the difference between a filter aid and a filter media?
Answer
B. Filter aids are used to create a porous layer for filtration, while filter media retain the solid particles
56
The proximate analysis of coal gives
Answer
C. Volatile matter, moisture, ash, fixed carbon
57
Identify the law stating that the total volume occupied by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum of the pure-component volumes.
Answer
A. Amagat's Law
58
In a once-through material balance, the total feed is equated against
Answer
A. Gross products
59
Which type of spectroscopy is used for molecular vibration analysis ?
Answer
B. IR Spectroscopy
60
Which of the following thermocouples has the highest temperature range ?
Answer
C. Type R (Platinum-Rhodium)
61
Name the flow meter that operates based on the differential pressure principle.
Answer
A. Venturi Meter
62
Amplitude ratio for sinusoidal response of a first order system shall be
Answer
B. Less than unity
63
Which of the following approximates the percentage band width of an on-off control?
Answer
C. Zero
64
Two first-order interacting systems connected in series constitute a ____ system.
Answer
B. Second order overdamped
65
It takes 12 hours for drying 50 kg of a wet solid from 30% to 12% moisture content. The critical moisture content is 10%, and the equilibrium moisture content is 4%. The falling rate period can be taken as linear, and all moisture contents are on a dry basis. The time taken for drying in the constant rate period in hours is
Answer
A. 12
66
The liquid stream entering a tray in a distillation column has an average composition of 52%. The leaving liquid stream composition is 49% on an average. If the average composition of liquid stream in equilibrium with the leaving vapour stream in equilibrium with the leaving vapour stream is found to be 48%, the percentage Murphree efficiency based on liquid stream for the given tray would be approximately equal to
Answer
B. 75
67
Humid air sample at atmospheric pressure has a dry bulb temperature of 33°C and a wet bulb temperature of 22°C. If the sample is heated at constant pressure to a dry bulb temperature of 55°C, its adiabatic saturation temperature will be equal to
Answer
C. Greater than 22°C
68
Penetration theory suggests that the mass transfer coefficient varies with the binary diffusivity as
Answer
D. k_c ∝ √D_AB
69
Ammonia air mixture containing 0.12 mole fraction of ammonia is passed over ammonia water solution containing 0.04 mole fraction of ammonia. Interphase mass transfer of ammonia takes place between the gas and liquid phases. Assume that the film mass transfer coefficient in the liquid phase is twice that in the gas phase. The equilibrium distribution of ammonia is given by y*=0.5x where y* and x are mole-fractions of ammonia in air and water respectively. The steady-state flux of ammonia is estimated to be 5 mol/ h. The film mass transfer coefficient on the gas phase round to the nearest integer is
Answer
C. 63
70
Which of the following causes non-vertical tie lines connecting the underflow and overflow in a leaching equilibrium ?
Answer
A. Adsorption of solute on the solid surface
71
Nylon-66 is manufactured from
Answer
A. Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
72
Which of the following oxide works as a catalyst for the formation of high density polyethylene by Philips process ?
Answer
C. Chromium oxide
73
Match the following. List 1 List 2 A) Phenol Formaldehyde I) Suspension polymerisation B) Stereo regular polypropylene II) Emulsion polymerisation C) Poly vinyl chloride III) Solution polymerisation D) Styrene butadiene rubber IV) Bulk polymerisation
Answer
B. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
74
How is the rate of polymerisation dependent on the concentration of monomer in the cationic polymerisation ?
Answer
C. Proportional to second power
75
Polymer used in bullet proof glass is
Answer
D. Lexan
76
As per IS 10500:2012, for drinking water in the absence of alternate sources of water, the permissible limits for chloride and sulphate, in mg/l, respectively are :
Answer
B. 1000 and 400
77
The distribution system in water supplies is designed on the basis of :
Answer
D. Greater of (2) and (3)
78
Match List-I (parameters) and List-II (diseases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list : List I List II (a) Absence of fluorides (i) Methemoglobinemia (b) Excess of lead (ii) Goitre (c) Presence of excess nitrate (iii) Dental caries (d) Absence of iodide (iv) Anaemia
Answer
A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
79
The maximum daily demand of a city is 24 × 10⁵ litres and the rate of filtration is 100 L/h/m². What is the area of the filter (m²)?
Answer
C. 1000
80
Order for disinfectants in increasing order of their disinfection power is :
Answer
D. Trichloramine < Monochloramine < HOCI < Ozone
81
At lower pH, the contact period required for chlorination is :
Answer
A. Lower
82
Lower Food to Micro-organism (F/M) ratio in a conventional activated treatment plant means :
Answer
B. Higher BOD removal
83
Recirculation in "Activated sludge process" is done to :
Answer
B. Supply seed to the aeration tank
84
The presence of algae in water indicates that water is :
Answer
C. Acidic
85
The following observations were made on 2% dilution of wastewater : Dissolved oxygen of aerated water used for diluted = 0 mg/l Dissolved oxygen of diluted sample after 5 days = 0.6 mg/l Dissolved oxygen of original sample = 2.0 mg/l The BOD of 5 days of the sample is :
Answer
D. 70mg/l
86
Activated sludge process is an example of :
Answer
D. Aerobic suspended growth process
87
Which of the following is not a secondary treatment unit in wastewater treatment ?
Answer
C. Imhoff tank
88
A water treatment plant has a flow rate of 0.6 m³/s. The settling basin at the plant has effective settling volume dimensions of length 20 m, depth 3 m, and width 6 m. What percentage of the particles having a settling velocity of 0.004 m/sec is removed?
Answer
A. 80%
89
The total hardness value obtained from the complete analysis of water sample was found to be 120 mg/l. If the value of carbonate hardness is 50 mg/l, the non-carbonate hardness and alkalinity are, respectively :
Answer
C. 70 mg/l and 50 mg/l
90
A 25 ml sample was diluted to 250 ml with odourless distilled water so that the odour of the sample no longer perceivable. What was the Threshold odour number ?
Answer
B. 10
91
The type of sedimentation process of water treatment in which the particles settle as individual entities, and there is no significant interaction with neighbouring particles is referred to as :
Answer
D. Discrete settling
92
The question consists of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)' : Assertion (A) : Tapered flocculation is more efficient when compared to the conventional process of flocculation. Reason (R) : In tapered flocculation, velocity gradient at the inlet is less than that at the outlet of the flocculation unit. Examine the above two statements carefully and select the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
93
Which coagulant is widely used for sewage treatment ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
If 12 ppm of alum dose is required for treatment of water, then quantity of alum for treatment of 10 million litre water will be :
Answer
D. 120kg
95
Which of the following is a group, including only aerobic treatment units for sewage treatment ?
Answer
A. Trickling filter, Oxidation pond, Activated sludge plant
96
What will be the Sludge Volume Index (SVI) (ml/gram) if 100ml of sludge collected in 30 minutes and on drying weighs 800 mg ?
Answer
A. 125
97
The correct sequence of the sludge deigestion steps is :
Answer
B. Hydrolisis, Acidogenesis, Methanogenesis
98
Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to :
Answer
C. Top of P-Trap of W.C
99
The valve used for the prevention of reversal of flow in a pipeline is :
Answer
C. Check valve
100
In removing bacteria and turbidities, as compared to rapid gravity filters, pressure filters are :
Answer
A. Less efficient
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