| Post Name | ASSISTANT ENGINEER (MECHANICAL), INSPECTOR OF FACTORIES AND |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 068/2026 |
| Category Code | 541/2025, 697/2025 |
| Date of Test | 22 July 2026 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The radius of Mohr’s circle drawn to scale 1 cm = 10 MPa, for a plane stress system subjected with normal stresses 50 MPa (compressive) and 50 MPa (tensile) in X and Y directions respectively is
Answer
D. 5 cm
2
a tensile test specimen of radius 2 cm recorded an extension of 0.45 mm when put
to an axial pull of 200 kN in UTm on a gauge length of 150 mm and a decrease of
0.024 mm in diameter. Then the Poisson’s ratio of the material will be
Answer
A. 0.2
3
The area under the stress strain curve of a mild steel plotted during the tensile test
upto rupture gives
Answer
A. The toughness of the material
4
The stress in the section Bc of the steel bar of cross section 20 mm × 10 mm acted
upon by the forces as shown in Figure is
A B C D
50 kN 15 kN 10 kN 45 kN
Answer
D. 175 mPa (Tensile)
5
For the simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load as shown in the Figure,
the maximum shear force and bending moment will be
4 kN/m
A B
3m
Answer
B. 6 kN and 4.5 kN-m
6
For a simply supported beam subjected with a central point load, which of the following
statement is/are correct ?
I. The stiffness of the beam depends on young’s modulus of the material
II. The stiffness of the beam increases as moment of inertial of the beam cross section
increases
III. The stiffness of the beam depends on the strength of the beam
IV. The stiffness of the beam is proportional to its area of the cross section
Answer
A. Both I and II
7
When a metal bar of uniform cross-section with its ends fixed between two rigid
concrete blocks, is cooled to ice temperature, which of the following statements is
correct regarding the stress developed in the bar ?
Answer
C. The stress depends on young’s modulus of the bar
8
The strain energy stored in a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with an end load ‘P’ is
given as 150 N-m. If the length of the cantilever is doubled, the strain energy stored
will be
Answer
B. 1200 N-m
9
choose the correct statement for a simply supported I-section beam with a transverse
point load applied at the center
Answer
D. The shearing stress is maximum at the neutral axis
10
The crippling load for a very long column fixed at both ends is identified as 1000 N.
If the length of the column is halved, the critical load will be
Answer
C. 4000 N
11
The maximum deflection of a steel cantilever beam (E = 210 GPa) subjected with
a point load at the free end is given as 12 mm. If the beam was made of aluminium
(E = 70 GPa) with half the length of steel, what would have been the deflection ?
Answer
B. 4.5 mm
12
The reactions at the supports of a statically indeterminate linear elastic structure can
be determined by
Answer
C. castigliano’s theorem
13
The Zeroth law of Thermodynamics provides the operational basis for the
measurement of
Answer
C. Temperature
14
The Second Law of Thermodynamics serves as the foundational basis for defining
which property ?
Answer
C. Entropy
15
The clausius-clapeyron equation is used to determine the slope of a curve on which
type of thermodynamic diagram ?
Answer
D. P-T diagram
16
a refrigeration system’s condenser rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, and its compressor
uses 30 kW of power. Calculate the system’s Coefficient of Performance
Answer
C. OP).
17
An adiabatic nozzle receives air at 300 kPa, 227°C and 10 m/s through an inlet area of 80 cm². The air leaves the nozzle at a pressure of 100 kPa and a speed of 180 m/s. If Cₚ = 1008 J/kgK, find the exit temperature of the air (in °C).
Answer
A. 211
18
an engine operates on an ideal air-standard Otto cycle with a compression ratio of
8.5. Assuming the specific heat ratio (γ) for air is 1.4, determine the thermal efficiency
of the cycle as a percentage.
Answer
C. 57.5
19
Heat flows at a rate of 100 kW through a steady-state wall. If the boundary temperatures
of the wall are 400 K and 300 K, calculate the resulting entropy generation rate in
W/K.
Answer
D. 83.33
20
Which of the following is considered an extensive property ?
Answer
C. Volume
21
Which of the following expressions correctly defines Gibbs free energy ?
Answer
C. G = H – TS
22
a reversible power cycle operates between temperature limits of 800 K and 300 K.
If the cycle receives 400 kJ of heat, what is the amount of unavailable work in kJ ?
Answer
A. 150
23
Given that a gas has a specific heat ratio of 1.4 and a specific heat at constant
pressure of 7 kJ/kg·K, what is the value of cp – Cv in kJ/kg·K ?
Answer
A. 2
24
a gas mixture undergoes expansion from an initial volume of 0.03 m3 to a final volume
of 0.06 m3 under a constant pressure of 1 mPa. If the system absorbs 84 kJ of heat
during this expansion, what is the resulting change in its internal energy ?
Answer
C. 54 kJ
25
The shear stress on a fluid layer is directly proportional to shear strain.
Answer
D. The above statement is incorrect
26
The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is 4.905 N/cm 2. What will be the
corresponding height of an oil column of specific gravity 0.8 ?
Answer
A. 6.25 m
27
a rectangular plane surface is 2 m wide and 3 m deep. It lies in vertical plane in
water. determine the position of centre of pressure on the plane surface when its
upper edge is horizontal and coincides with water surface.
Answer
D. 2 m
28
Which is the condition for stable equilibrium of a floating body ?
Answer
C. The metacentre should be above centre of gravity
29
The following are the assumptions of Bernoulli’s equation :
i. The fluid is ideal
ii. The flow is uniform
iii. The flow is incompressible
Which of the above point is/are correct ?
Answer
C. Only i and iii
30
The equation of motion where only pressure force and gravity force are considered, is
Answer
B. Euler’s equation
31
For finding the fluid velocity at any point in a pipe, the following instrument is used
Answer
B. Pitot static tube
32
The friction factor for laminar flow in pipes is given by
(Where Re is the Reynolds number)
Answer
B. 64/Re
33
Water flows as a free jet from one end of a smooth horizontal pipe at a velocity of
9.81 m/s, while the other end of the pipe is connected to a tank. The height of water
in the tank is 5 m from the centerline of the pipe. calculate the loss of head at the
free end of the pipe.
Answer
C. 4.905 m of water
34
Water flowing through a pipe moves out through a nozzle at a velocity of 40 m/s. The cross sectional area of the nozzle is 0.005 m². The work done per second by the above jet on a fixed flat plate is
Answer
D. None of the above
35
The ratio of the pitch diameter of the Pelton wheel to the diameter of the jet is known as
Answer
A. Jet ratio
36
The head against which a centrifugal pump has to work is known as
Answer
A. manometric head
37
The unit cell with three lattice parameters is
Answer
B. orthorhombic
38
The number of members in the family in a cubic crystal are
Answer
D. 48
39
In Hume-Rothery rules for extensive solid solubility, the atomic diameter of the solute
and the solvent atoms should not differ by more than
Answer
B. 15%
40
a cation vacancy and an anion vacancy in a crystal of the type aB is called
Answer
A. Schottky defect
41
The t vector is parallel to the b vector in a dislocation of the type
Answer
A. screw
42
The fraction of pearlite in a 0.55% c steel is
Answer
C. 0.71
43
Among the following elements, the one with the largest diffusion coefficient in steel
at 1000°c is
Answer
D. c
44
The free energy decrease during recrystallization comes mainly from
Answer
B. excess dislocations
45
The length of the Frank-Read source operating after work hardening to double the
initial yield stress is approximately
Answer
A. half
46
Eutectoid steels have structure of
Answer
A. pearlite alone
47
Sorbite is the structure obtained by
Answer
C. Quenching austenite and then heating into the range of 375 to 660°c
48
The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by
Answer
A. hardening and cold working
49
Highest Useful compression Ratio (HUcR) of an engine is
Answer
C. The critical compression ratio at which a fuel can be used without detonation in a
test engine
50
The relative density of a lead-acid battery on being tested by a hydrometer gives a
reading of 1.110 means that the battery is
Answer
C. Fully discharged
51
A certain mass of wet steam mixture consists of m, kg and m,, kg of dry steam and
water vapour respectively, then the quality of steam is given by
m m
Answer
A. ——
52
The refrigerant R717 stands for
Answer
B. NH3
53
The clearance factor for a compressor is the ratio of
Answer
A. clearance volume to swept volume
54
In the electromagnetic spectrum the wavelength of a thermal radiation extended over
a range of
Answer
A. 0.1 – 100 µm
55
a crank angle of 18° duration is required for the injection of the fuel for a four stroke
diesel engine running at 2000rpm. What is the injection duration in milliseconds ?
Answer
B. 1.5ms
56
a body whose radiation output has the same distribution as a blackbody but is reduced
by a constant fraction is called
Answer
C. Gray body
57
For the same compression ratio, the Otto cycle efficiency ‘η’ for the working fluids having compression index, n = 1.3, 1.4, 1.67 can be related as
Answer
A. η(n = 1.67) > η(n = 1.4) > η(n = 1.3)
58
What is the role of heavy water in a nuclear reactor ?
Answer
D. It serves as a neutron moderator and coolant
59
In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first stage, the thermal efficiency
Answer
A. decreases
60
For a counter flow heat exchanger, the temperature of hot fluid at inlet and outlet are
100°C and 50°C and the corresponding cold fluid are 30°C and 80°C respectively.
Then the lmTd of the heat exchanger is
Answer
B. 20°C
61
A 40 kW engine running at rated rpm has a mechanical efficiency of 80%. What is
its approximate mechanical efficiency at half rated load ?
Answer
C. 66%
62
Air with a velocity of ‘V’ is passing through a rectangular duct of size ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(X > Y). If the same fluid with same velocity is passing through a circular ducts of
diameter ‘D’ then the equivalent diameter ‘D,’ of circular duct for the same pressure
drop per unit length is given by
X+Y 2XxY 2Y 2X
——
Answer
B. —;> ———
63
Gear tooth interference can be reduced by
Answer
A. Increasing pressure angle
64
Pressure angle in gear is
Answer
B. The angle between the common normal at the point of tooth contact and the
common tangent to the pitch circles
65
For the same speed, load and center distance, the efficiency of flat belt is
Answer
A. Higher than V belt
66
If semi cone angle of a cone clutch falls below the angle of static friction
Answer
B. clutch will self-lock
67
A flywheel stores 10 kJ of energy at 100 rpm. If the speed increases to 200 rpm, the
stored energy becomes
Answer
B. 40 kJ
68
What happens to the gyroscopic couple if the angular momentum is doubled, keeping
precision velocity the same
Answer
A. Gyroscopic couple becomes two times the previous value
69
choose the correct option regarding the following :
Assertion (A) : complete balancing of reciprocating masses is not possible.
reason (r) : The inertia force due to reciprocating motion acts along a straight line
and changes direction periodically.
a) Both
Answer
A. and
70
a spring-mass system with mass m1 and stiffness k1 has double the frequency of
another system having mass m2 and stiffness k2. If the mass m2 is one half of m1,
the stiffness ratio k1/k2 will be
Answer
D. 8
71
choose the correct option regarding the following :
Assertion (A) : a highly damped system may not be suitable for vibration isolation
at high frequencies.
reason (r) : Excess damping decreases force transmissibility in the isolation region.
a) Both
Answer
C. is the correct explanation
B) Both
72
If a joint is required to be both lightweight and highly efficient, the preferred choice is
Answer
C. Welded joint
73
Which shaft design modification most effectively improves fatigue life without
significantly increasing weight ?
Answer
C. Providing generous fillet radii and good surface finish
74
a designer replaces a ball bearing with a roller bearing of similar size. The most likely
reason is
Answer
B. To increase radial load carrying capacity
75
Repeated braking at short intervals may lead to
Answer
D. all of the above
76
The ratio of the maximum stress in a member at a geometrical discontinuity to the
nominal stress at the same section based upon net area is called
Answer
B. Theoretical or form stress concentration factor
77
as grain size of a cast alloy decreases
Answer
B. ductility increases
78
If subscript 1 denotes the top of the sprue and subscript 2 denotes the bottom, assuming that pressure at the top of the sprue is equal to the pressure at the bottom and that there are no frictional losses, the relationship between height h and cross sectional area A at any point in the sprue is given by
Answer
D. A₁/A₂ = √(h₂/h₁)
79
lamellar tears may develop in welding because of
Answer
C. shrinkage of the restrained components of the structure during cooling
80
The primary rolling operation used to manufacture the spherical balls for ball
bearings
Answer
D. skew rolling
81
If φ is the shear angle and α is the rake angle, chip-thickness ratio r of an orthogonal
cutting operation is given by
Answer
C. r = sin φ/cos (φ – α)
82
BUE
Answer
B. uilt Up Edge) formation during machining can be reduced by
83
A machining process used to create flat horizontal surfaces
Answer
A. slab milling
84
The medium used in mond process for manufacture of metal powders
Answer
B. Carbon monoxide
85
among the following non-traditional machining methods, which one offers the highest
material removal rate ?
Answer
B. Electro chemical machining (Ecm)
86
GO limit corresponds to
i. lower limit for shaft and upper limit for hole.
ii. upper limit for shaft and lower limit for hole.
iii. maximum material condition.
iv. minimum material condition.
Which among the above are true ?
Answer
D. ii and iii
87
How many fundamental standard grades of tolerance are there ?
Answer
C. 18
88
The degree of reproducibility of a measurement
Answer
A. precision
89
What do you mean by delegation in management ?
Answer
A. assignment of responsibility to subordinates
90
Which of the following is(are) correct statement(s) controlling function in management ?
i. The controlling function involves monitoring progress and making needed changes.
ii. The controlling function involves assigning tasks to the employees.
Answer
A. i
91
a data entry operator completes his task in 300 minutes with a performance rating
of 80%. The standard time for the task is 276 minutes. The allowance provided for
the task is
Answer
C. 15 percentage
92
Which of the following concept involves unit load principle ?
Answer
D. all of these
93
Which of the following is(are) correct statement(s) for production planning ?
i. critical ratio is the ratio of ‘the time remaining until due date’ to ‘total shop time
remaining’.
ii. critical ratio is a sequencing rule used in production planning.
Answer
C. i and ii
94
In the following, which is not a therblig ?
Answer
B. move
95
Which of the following is not a sequencing rule in production planning ?
Answer
D. None
96
Forecasting technique of gaining consensus from a group of experts while maintain
their anonymity is
Answer
C. delphi method
97
Which of the following is(are) correct statement(s) for Economic order quantity ?
i. Economic order quantity is the lot size that minimises total annual inventory holding
and ordering costs.
ii. Economic order quantity is the lot size at which the annual holding and ordering
costs are same.
Answer
C. i and ii
98
a layout in which a set of machines chosen so that it can carry out the complete
processing of a given family of products is
Answer
B. Group layout
99
Which of the following is not a management development technique ?
Answer
D. Programmed learning
100
If the gain of one player equals loss of other player in a game, it is called
Answer
B. Zero sum game
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