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Kerala PSC ASSISTANT ENGINEER (MECHANICAL) (Kerala Ports Service (Hydrographic)) Previous Question Paper – 065/2026

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Post NameASSISTANT ENGINEER (MECHANICAL) (Kerala Ports Service (Hydrographic))
Question Paper Code065/2026
Category Code539/2025
Date of Test15 July 2026
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
Cohesion is a tendency of the liquid to remain as one assemblage of particles
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
2
The law which states “The rate of increase of pressure in a vertical direction is equal to weight density of the fluid at that point” is
Answer
A. Hydrostatic law
3
If a body, when given a small angular displacement, occupies a new position and remains at rest in this new position, it is said to possess
Answer
C. Neutral Equilibrium
4
Which among the following conditions is not an assumption for deriving Bernoulli’s equation?
Answer
B. Real fluid and incompressible flow
5
Which of the following equations is derived based on the Law of Conservation of Mass?
Answer
A. Continuity Equation
6
The pressure distribution in a plane source flow can be obtained with the help of
Answer
Question Cancelled
7
Which of the following devices is not used for measuring rate of flow in pipeline?
Answer
D. Pitot tube
8
The cross-sectional area of the jet at the vena contracta is
Answer
B. Less than that of the orifice
9
For a suppressed weir,
Answer
A. The crest length is equal to the width of channel
10
In the phenomenon of cavitation, the characteristic fluid property involved is
Answer
D. Vapour pressure 4 65/2026
11
When a flat plate moving with velocity ‘u’ held normal to the fluid jet of velocity ‘V’, the component of the leaving jet normal to the plane will be
Answer
Question Cancelled
12
In a hydraulic power plant for a reaction turbine, the net head is the difference between
Answer
B. (i) Sum of the pressure head, velocity head and the elevation of the centre of the penstock above the assumed datum at the entrance of the turbine and (ii) The elevation of the tail water plus the velocity head in the draft tube at its exit
13
In a hydraulic turbine, the ratio of power developed by the runner to the net power supplied by the water at the entrance to the turbine is
Answer
A. Hydraulic efficiency
14
Specific speed between 260 to 860 that indicates the hydraulic turbine is
Answer
C. Kaplan turbine
15
In a Francis turbine, the value of speed ratio varies between
Answer
C. 0.6 to 0.9
16
Run away speed for a Kaplan turbine normally ranges from
Answer
C. 2.5 to 3 times normal speed
17
Constant head characteristics of Kaplan turbine for different gate openings shows
Answer
B. Unit discharge increase with unit speed
18
A hydraulic turbine has an output of 6500 kW when it works under a head of 25 m and runs at 100 rpm. Specific speed of the turbine is
Answer
B. 144.22
19
Favourable conditions for negative slip in a reciprocating pump are
Answer
C. High speed, long suction pipe, low delivery head
20
In a centrifugal pump, the ratio of output of the pump to the power imparted by the impeller is called
Answer
A. Manometric efficiency
21
The heating and expanding of a gas is called
Answer
C. Thermodynamic process
22
In a Carnot cycle, the process carried at extremely high speed is
Answer
B. Adiabatic expansion
23
Which one of the following pairs best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair ‘pressure-volume’ for a thermodynamic system undergoing a process?
Answer
D. Temperature-entropy
24
The law which indicates the limit of converting heat into work is
Answer
B. Second law of thermodynamics
25
The maximum possible number of specific heats that a perfect gas could have is
Answer
D. Infinity
26
In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system,
Answer
D. None of the above
27
In an irreversible process, there is a
Answer
A. Loss of heat
28
The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
Answer
D. All of the above
29
The property of a working substance, which increases or decreases according to the heat supplied or removed in a reversible manner is called
Answer
B. Entropy
30
The efficiency of diesel cycle approaches Otto cycle efficiency with
Answer
B. Decrease in cut-off
31
Calorific value of solid fuel is expressed in terms of
Answer
B. J/Kg
32
Which instrument is used for finding higher calorific value of solid and liquid fuels?
Answer
B. Bomb calorimeter
33
A fuel consists of 85% carbon, 12.5% hydrogen, 2.5% residual matter by mass. What is the higher calorific value of fuel?
Answer
B. 46730 KJ/Kg
34
The dryness fraction of dry steam is
Answer
C. One
35
Which steam cycle comprises two isobaric and two isentropic?
Answer
C. Rankine cycle
36
In which steam turbine, the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop?
Answer
Question Cancelled
37
A closed-cycle gas turbine works on
Answer
A. Joule cycle
38
In a tandem type compound steam engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinder
Answer
C. Have a common piston rod
39
If the nozzle coefficient is ‘K’ and enthalpy drop during expansion is ‘hd’, then velocity of steam leaving the nozzle ‘V’ is
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
The compounding of turbine is done in order to
Answer
D. All of the above
41
The centre of gravity of a uniform semicircular lamina lies at a distance of from its base when measured along its vertical radius. 4r
Answer
B. — 3 r r
42
In the stress-strain curve of a ductile material, the Hooke’s law is valid at
Answer
B. Elastic region
43
The deformation of a bar of uniform cross-sectional area A and length L when subjected to an axial tensile load P is P PE
Answer
C. iF
44
In a composite section subjected to tensile load,
Answer
C. Deformations of individual sections are equal
45
If a simply supported beam carries a point load at the centre of the beam, then the bending moment diagram will be a
Answer
C. Triangle with maximum ordinate at the centre of the beam
46
The ratio of the moment of inertia about the neutral axis to the distance to the extreme point of the section from the neutral axis is called
Answer
B. Section modulus
47
Torsional rigidity of a shaft is defined as the torque required to produce
Answer
D. A twist of one radian per unit length of the shaft
48
The circumferential stress in a thin cylindrical shell of diameter d, length L and thickness t when subjected to an internal pressure p is equal to
Answer
B. pd/(2t)
49
The crippling load according to Euler’s theory for long columns when both ends of the column hinged is equal to 4π2EI π2EI
Answer
B. l2 l2 π2EI π2EI
50
The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is termed as
Answer
A. Poisson’s ratio
51
All iron and steel products are derived originally from
Answer
A. Pig iron
52
Rimmed steel is represented by the symbol
Answer
C. R
53
Normalizing produces a homogeneous structure consisting of only pearlite for
Answer
B. Eutectoid steel
54
Interrupted quenching operation produces
Answer
C. Martensite
55
NIMONICS is an alloy of
Answer
D. Nickel
56
Identify surface hardening process from the following.
Answer
D. Nitriding
57
Identify Chromium, Tungsten and Vanadium content in 18-4-1 HSS.
Answer
D. 4%, 18%, 1%
58
The melting point of pure iron is
Answer
A. 1535 °C
59
Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with carbon content varying up to
Answer
D. 2%
60
Alloying element suitable to improve corrosion resistance is
Answer
A. Chromium
61
What is Tenoning?
Answer
D. Tenoning is the projection on a wood piece to fit inside a mortise 14 65/2026
62
What is the use of riddle?
Answer
C. It is used to remove small metals and foreign materials
63
In sheet metal section, sheet means
Answer
A. Less than 6 mm
64
The function of rectifier in Welding is
Answer
B. Converting AC to DC
65
The material of the double cut file is
Answer
A. High carbon steel
66
Taylor’s tool life equation is
Answer
A. VTⁿ = C
67
Cutting speed equation of a milling cutter is
Answer
D. V = πDN/1000 m/min
68
In lathe, the pitch of a leadscrew id 4 mm and the pitch of the thread to be cut 2 mm. Find change gear ratio.
Answer
B. 1/2
69
Which of the following correctly defines the function of planer?
Answer
C. The work is supported on the table and tool in stationary
70
What is the twist drill cutting angle for general work?
Answer
B. 118 degree
71
Which of the following statements is/are correct about a point that is situated in the third quadrant? (i) The top view is always above reference line (ii) Front view is always above the reference line (iii) Distance of front view from reference line is equal to the distance of the point from the horizontal plane
Answer
C. Only (i and iii)
72
A hyperbola has
Answer
B. Two foci and two directrices
73
Which of the following statements is/are correct about isometric projection? (i) In isometric projection, the three mutually perpendicular axes (isometric axes) of the cube containing the object are equally inclined to vertical plane (ii) All vertical lines of the object are represented by vertical lines in the isometric projection (iii) In isometric projection, a square is represented by a rhombus
Answer
B. Only (ii and iii)
74
The method of development of surfaces are used for pyramids and cones.
Answer
C. Radial-line development
75
Which of the following statements is/are correct about oblique projection? (i) Projectors from an object are parallel to each other and inclined to the plane of projection. (ii) All the faces of the object are distorted in the shape and size (iii) The faces of the object which are perpendicular to the plane of projection will be distorted in the shape and size
Answer
A. Only (i and iii)
76
In general, which of the following assumptions is/are correct about the analysis of a riveted joint? (i) There are no bending or direct stresses in rivets. (ii) Rivet holes in the plate do not weaken the plate in compression. (iii) Rivets after assembly completely fill the holes.
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
77
In longitudinal fillet-welded joint, the mode of failure is due to
Answer
A. Shear
78
In a belt drive, the ratio of the tangential force to twice the initial tension is called the
Answer
C. Pull factor
79
Which of the following basic requirements is/are must be considered while designing a gear drive? (i) The dynamic load at normal running conditions due to profile error on the tooth (ii) The highest static load acting on the gear tooth due to high starting torque (iii) Wear characteristics of the gear tooth for a long satisfactory life
Answer
C. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
80
The Woodruff key is used to transmit
Answer
D. Small values of torque
81
Ignition lag in SI engines is reduced, if
Answer
C. Initial temperature is increased
82
Detonation can be controlled by
Answer
B. Retarding spark
83
Too high pressure in diesel injectors is due to
Answer
C. Needle valve seized in almost closed position
84
Lower delay period is obtained by
Answer
A. Use of higher cetane number fuel
85
The best economy fuel-air ratio is
Answer
D. Independent of engine speed
86
Which of the following is not an accessory in steam boilers?
Answer
D. Heating surface 65/2026 19
87
Identify the high pressure water tube steam boiler working on forced circulation.
Answer
A. LaMont Boilers
88
The device used to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main stream pipe is
Answer
B. Steam stop valve
89
Name the device used for preheating the feed water by utilizing the heat of waste flue gases.
Answer
A. Economizer
90
Which of the following statements is not true in Water-tube boilers?
Answer
D. The hot flue gases pass through tubes and water surrounds them
91
In lithium bromide vapor absorption system, the refrigerant and absorbent respectively are
Answer
A. Water, lithium bromide
92
Wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is
Answer
B. Same as dew point temperature
93
In SI unit, one tonne of refrigeration is equal to
Answer
B. 3.5 kW
94
Newton’s law of cooling is related with
Answer
B. Convective heat transfer
95
When the temperature of water in spray washing system is much higher than the temperature of the dry bulb temperature of the air entering the system, the process that takes place is
Answer
A. Heating and humidification
96
Thermal conductivity of a conducting material depends on its
Answer
D. Composition 65/2026 21
97
For a perfect black body,
Answer
C. absorptivity = 1, reflectivity = 0, transmissivity = 0
98
Factors affecting comfort air conditioning are
Answer
D. All of the above
99
What will be the ratio of the highest temperature to the lowest temperature of a reversed Carnot cycle, if COP is 2?
Answer
Question Cancelled
100
Calculate the COP of the heat pump, if it operates between the temperature limits of 400 K and 200 K.
Answer
A. 2

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