| Post Name | ASSISTANT ENGINEER (MECHANICAL) (Universities in Kerala) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 104/2025 |
| Category Code | 276/2024 |
| Date of Test | 18 August 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The ratio between Longitudinal Stress and volumetric strain is known as:
Answer
A. Bulk modulus
2
Ultimate strength and breaking strength in tensile loading is almost same for :
Answer
B. Brittle materials
3
A bimetal strip of equal length for both metal is packed lengthwise in between two walls
and the specimen is heated. Which material will be subjected to tension?
Answer
C. The metal with lower thermal expansion coefficient
4
If a simply supported beam of uniform cross section is centrally loaded in downward
direction, according to the theory of simple bending, which portion will be subjected to
compression?
Answer
A. Portion above the neutral axis
5
A torsionally equivalent shaft will have :
Answer
A. Same angle of twist
6
Maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of uniform cross section and
span L. with central point load W is given by the formula :
Answer
C. WL/4
7
The point of contraflexure of a beam means :
(i) The point at which bending moment changes sign
(ii) The point at which shear force changes sign
(iii) This is also known as point of inflection
(iv) The point of zero shear force.
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) are true
8
A rectangular beam of 12 cm wide and 10 cm deep is subjected to bending. If the
maximum bending moment is 90 KN-m, then maximum bending stress is :
2 2
Answer
A. 450 MN/m
9
A simple shear stress acting on a body is accompanied by a complementary shear stress
of equal magnitude acting in the __________ direction.
Answer
C. Perpendicular direction
10
Work done on a material in simple tension upto fracture is known as :
Answer
C. Modulus of toughness
11
Maximum principal stress theory is better applicable to :
Answer
A. Brittle materials
12
Strongest columns are those with __________ - slenderness ratio.
Answer
D. Smallest
13
In the relation PVβΏ = C, the value n = β represents which process?
Answer
C. Constant Volume
14
Second law of thermodynamics defines :
Answer
D. Entropy
104/2025 4 A
15
The area under Temperature β Entropy curve for any thermodynamic process represents :
Answer
A. Heat absorbed or rejected
16
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is :
Answer
A. 0 K
17
Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to :
Cp Cv
Answer
C. C p β Cv
18
The changes in Gibbs energy for vaporization of pure substance is :
Answer
D. Zero
19
The JouleβThomson coefficient ΞΌ is defined as:
Answer
A. ΞΌ = (βT/βP)_H
20
The most efficient process of compression is :
Answer
B. Isothermal
21
The expression 1 β ο¦ο§ οΆο· denotes the following efficiency of an I.C engine :
ο¨rοΈ
Answer
B. Air standard efficiency
22
The main cause for the irreversibility is :
Answer
D. All of the above
23
The amount of heat absorbed to evaporate 1 kg of water from its saturation temperature,
without change of temperature, is called :
Answer
A. Latent heat of vaporization
24
An open system is one in which :
Answer
D. Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
25
The horizontal force on a curved surface immersed in a liquid equal :
Answer
C. The force on the vertical projection on the surface
26
One of the following statements is true with regards to bodies that float or are
submerged in liquids :
Answer
B. For a body wholly submerged in a liquid the stability is ensured if the centre
of buoyancy is above the centre of gravity of the body
27
The Eulerβs equation of motion is a statement of:
Answer
B. Conservation of momentum for an inviscid fluid
28
The Reynolds number for flow of a fluid in a circular tube is specified at 2500. What will
be the Reynolds number when the tube diameter is increased by 20% and the fluid
velocity is decreased by 40% keeping the fluid same :
Answer
C. 1800
29
Velocity of flow through a circular pipe, measured at the centre is found to be 2 m/s.
If the Reynolds number is 1200, what is the average flow velocity in the pipe :
Answer
C. 1 m/s
30
The drag force exerted by a fluid on a body immersed in the fluid is due to :
Answer
A. Pressure and viscous forces
31
Which place in a draft tube is most susceptible for cavitation?
Answer
A. Inlet of a draft tube
32
In order to have maximum power from a Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be.
Answer
B. Half of the jet speed
33
For negative value of slip, the coefficient of discharge in a reciprocating pump will be :
Answer
B. More than unity
34
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
Answer
D. Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine
A 7 104/2025
35
For a Newtonian Fluid :
Answer
C. Shear stress is proportional to rate of shear strain
36
In a single-acting reciprocating pump without air vessel, the ratio of average friction
head to maximum friction head in the suction/delivery pipe is :
Answer
D. 2/3
37
The temperature at which the delta iron formed at range :
Answer
A. Between 1400 Β°C and 1539 Β°C
38
Which of the following material is most suitable for manufacturing of railway rails?
Answer
B. High carbon steel
39
TTT diagram indicates time, temperature and transformation of :
Answer
B. Austnite
40
How is the Gibbs phase rule for a general system represented? (F = number of degrees of freedom; C = number of components; P = number of phases.)
Answer
D. P + F = C + 2
41
Eutectoid product in Fe β C system is named as :
Answer
C. Pearlite
42
Iron β Carbon equilibrium diagram :
Answer
A. Is made by plotting carbon percentage along X-axis and temperature along
Y-axis
43
The closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in :
Answer
A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt cadmium, antimony and bismuth
44
The process of cyaniding and nitriding are the two methods of :
Answer
C. Case hardening
45
Select the correct statement :
Answer
D. Iron β Carbon is equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is a non equilibrium
diagram
46
An Atomic Packing Factor
Answer
B. 0.68
47
Recrystallization temperature is :
Answer
C. New spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when the
strained is heated
48
Toughness in a steel is increased and brittleness is decreased by a heat treatment
operation is called :
Answer
B. Tempering
49
Rankine cycle comprises of :
Answer
B. Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
50
In a steam nozzle, for the same pressure ratio, the effect of friction leads to :
Answer
C. Increase in dryness fraction of the exit steam and decrease in exit velocity
from the nozzle
51
De-Laval turbine is an example of :
Answer
A. Simple impulse turbine
52
The standard firing order in a 4-cylinder petrol engine is :
Answer
B. 1-3-4-2
53
Knocking in S.I. engines can be reduced by :
Answer
D. Retarding the spark advance
54
In a two stage gas turbine plant, with intercooling and reheating :
Answer
C. Work ratio increases and thermal efficiency decreases
55
In reciprocating air compressors, the clearance ratio is given as the ratio of :
Answer
C. Clearance volume to swept volume of cylinder
56
A Carnot refrigerator is working between 250K and 300K. Its COP is :
Answer
D. 5
57
If an unsaturated air is passed through a spray of continuously recirculate water :
Answer
D. Dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
58
A 10 mm diameter electric cable (k = 200 W/mΒ·K) is to be provided with rubber insulation (k = 0.16 W/mΒ·K). The cable is exposed to atmosphere with heat-transfer coefficient 8 W/mΒ²Β·K. What insulation thickness ensures maximum heat dissipation?
Answer
A. 15 mm
59
The correlation NuD = 48/11 holds good for heat transfer in :
Answer
D. Laminar forced convection for internal tube flow with constant heat flux
boundary condition
60
Which law in thermal radiation gives a relationship between the temperature of a black
body and the wavelength at which the maximum value of monochromatic emissive power
occurs?
Answer
A. Wienβs displacement law
61
Two circular plates 1 and 2, with respective areas Aβ = 2 mΒ² and Aβ = 5 mΒ², exchange thermal radiation. The shape factor Fβββ is 0.4. What is Fβββ? Assume black bodies.
Answer
C. 0.16
62
Which of the following statement is not an assumption used in LMTD analysis of heat
exchangers?
Answer
B. Axial conduction is constant
63
The degree of freedom, when the mechanism forms a structure is :
Answer
B. Zero
64
Which of the following is an inversion of double-slider-crank chain?
(i) Whitworth Quick-return mechanism
(ii) Elliptical trammel
(iii) Scotch yoke
(iv) Rotary Engine
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
65
The sense of Coriolis component 2 ΟV is the same as that of the relative velocity
vector V :
Answer
A. 90 degree in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path.
66
A differential gear in an automobile is
Answer
D. Epicyclic gear train
104/2025 12 A
67
Which of the following type of viscous damping will give periodic motion to the vibrating
body?
(i) Critical damping
(ii) Under damping
(iii) Over damping
Answer
B. Only (ii)
68
Primary forces in reciprocating engines :
Answer
A. are partially balanced
69
The angle of inclination of the crank to the line of stroke is, when swaying couple attains
maximum or minimum :
Answer
B. 45Β° and 225Β°
70
Large field gun which comes to initial position after firing in possible time are :
Answer
A. Critically damped
71
Which of the following theories is suitable for the design of cast iron component?
Answer
A. Maximum Principal stress theory
72
Ratio of the rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivet when the tearing efficiency of the
riveted joint is 40%
Answer
D. 0.6
73
The design of transverse fillet welded joint is based on :
Answer
B. Tensile strength
74
The bearing characteristic number is, if Z is absolute viscosity of the lubricant, N is
speed of journal and P is bearing pressure :
ZP Z
Answer
C. P
75
The Gears used for connecting two non interesting and non parallel shaft :
Answer
A. Spiral gears
76
The circle on which the involute is generated in spur gear is called :
Answer
D. Base circle
77
Ornaments are cast by:
Answer
B. Pressed casting
78
In centrifugal casting impurities are :
Answer
B. Collected in the centre of casting
79
In machine tools, chatter is due to :
Answer
C. Self-excited vibrations
80
A good lubricant for thread cutting operation is :
Answer
B. Mineral lard oil
81
Tool life is most effected by :
Answer
A. Cutting speed
82
The machining process in which the metal of work piece is dissolved is :
Answer
D. Electro chemical machining
83
The powder metallurgy part has tiny capillary pores all over which can be filled by oil or
other lubricant is called :
Answer
B. Impregnation
84
Increasing the positive back rake angle will make the tool :
Answer
A. Weaker
85
A shaft rotating in a bush bearing is an example of :
Answer
B. Running fit
86
The following is not a method to find effective thread diameter :
Answer
C. The V-piece method
87
The distance from the joint root to the toe of the weld is called :
Answer
A. Leg
88
In solid-state welding the contamination layers between the surfaces to be welded are
removed by :
Answer
B. Plastic deformation
89
Which of the following is/are part of Taylorβs principles concerned with scientific
management?
(i) Ensure cooperation through incentives and provide a work environment that
reinforces optimal work results in a scientific manner.
(ii) Divide responsibility for managing and working and devise scientific education and
training programmes.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
90
Which of the following is true about a line and staff organization?
(i) The line managers can seek help from specialists by way of advice.
(ii) Staff members have authority and responsibility in a line and staff organisation.
Answer
A. Only (i)
91
Which of the following is/are used for selective inventory classification?
(i) ABC analysis
(ii) HML analysis
(iii) VED analysis
(iv) FSN analysis
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
92
Which of the following is/are correct about duality in Linear Programming?
(i) In the primal is a maximization problem dual will also be a maximization problem.
(ii) The number of primal decision variables equals the number of dual constraints,
and the number of primal constraints is equal to the number of dual variables.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
93
Customers arrive at a hospital at the rate of 5/hour (Poisson arrival), and the doctor can
serve at the rate of 10/hour(exponential). What is the probability that a customer does
not have to wait and walks into the doctors room?
Answer
B. 0.5
94
Which of the following is/are correct in a balanced transportation problem?
(i) Total supply is equal to total demand
(ii) Vogelβs approximation method cannot be used for finding a basic feasible solution.
Answer
A. Only (i)
95
The length of time between placing an order and receipt of items is called :
Answer
D. Lead Time
96
Which of the following is/are the assumption/s of Economic Ordering Quantity with
instantaneous stock replenishment model
Answer
C. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
97
In quality control which of the following is control charts for Attributes?
Answer
B. P Chart
98
Which is the following is/are the advantages of acceptance sampling?
(i) Less expensive than 100 percent inspection
(ii) Where inspection may cause damage or complete destruction acceptance sampling
is more useful
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
99
Which is the following is/are the advantages of Work Study?
(i) Uniform and improved production flow
(ii) Higher productive efficiency
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
100
Which is the following is/are is the purpose of a multiple activity chart?
(i) To detect idle times being enforced on machines and workers
(ii) To optimize work distribution between workers and machines
(iii) To examine the inter-dependency of activities
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
ββββββββ
104/2025 18 A
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