| Post Name | ASSISTANT ENGINEER |
|---|---|
| Department | UNITED ELECTRICAL INDUSTRIES LIMITED |
| Question Paper Code | 005/2016 |
| Date of Test | 8 January 2016 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) is a restatement of :
Answer
B. Principle of conservation of energy
2
Ifthe number of turns of a coulis doubled, its inductance -
Answer
D. Increases four times
3
Two batteries having emfs of 10 V and 7 V and internal resistances 2 2 and 3 2
respectively are connected in parallel across a load of resistance of 1 @. The current drawn
by the load 1s:
Answer
C. 4A
4
A square coil of 10 cm side and with 100 turns is rotated at a. uniform speed of
1000 revolutions per minute about an axis at right angles to a uniform magnetic field having
a flux density of 0.5 wb/m*. The instantancous value of induced emf when the plane of the
coil is parallel to the plane of the field is:
Answer
C. y) 62.3 V
5
In an RLC series circuit, R = 2 Ω, Xₗ = 4 Ω and X꜀ = 6 Ω. The current is 5 A. The applied voltage in the circuit is:
Answer
A. 14.14 V
6
Acurrent of 10 A flows in a circuit with 30° angle of lag when the applied voltage is 100 V.
The resistance, reactance and impedance are :
Answer
A. 8.66692,5 9,10 0
7
A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic field and a current flows in this wire. Then :
Answer
B. The wire does not experience any force
8
If a 10 Ω resistance is connected to an a.c. supply v = 100 sin(314t + 37°) V, the power dissipated by the resistance is:
Answer
D. 500 W
9
Athree phase, four wire LOOV(L—Z) system supplies a balanced star connected load having
impedance of 10) ~30°Q in each phase, How much current is flowing through the neutral?
Answer
C. OA
10
If T, is the torque and /J,, the armature current for a DC series motor, which of the
| following relation is valid, after core saturation?
i ‘rt soa 1
Answer
D. T,al,
11
The permissible flux density of cold rolled grain oriented steel used for transformer core is
around :
Answer
A. 1.7 whim?
12
The nameplate of an energy meter reads ‘1 KWh = 15,000 revolutions’. If the meter completes 150 revolutions during 50 seconds, what is the power in the circuit?
Answer
B. 720 W
13
An ammeter with full scale deflection current of 100 wA (micro ampere) and internal
resistance of 100 © is required to measure a maximum current of 10 mA. The shunt
reelstance value is :
Answer
B. 1.01 9
14
If the moving coil of a voltmeter consists of 100 turns around on a square former which has a length of 30 mm and flux density in the air gap is 0.09 Wb/m². The deflecting torque on the coil when carrying a current of 10 mA is:
Answer
D. 81 × 10⁻⁶ Nm
15
A5 A, 250 V meter on full load, unity power factor test makes 72 revolutions in 360 seconds.
If the normal disc speed is 600 rev/KWh, what is the percentage error? ;
Answer
D. 4.17%
16
In a moving iron instrument, the deflection torque, Ty 18:
Answer
A. Directly proportional to square of current
17
Inductance affects the direct current (d.c.) flow :
Answer
C. at the time of turning on and off
18
For a sine wave with peak value E,,,,, the average value is:
Answer
A. 0.636 Bho.
19
The ratio of starting torque to full load torque is least in:
Answer
B. DC shunt motor
20
The iron core from an iron-cored coil 18 removed so that it becomes air-cored. The inductance
of the coil :
ei) remains the same (B) becomes zero
Answer
C. decreases
21
The forbidden energy band gap for Germanium is :
Answer
C. 0.72 eV
22
When the reverse bias is applied to a junction diode :
Answer
D. The potential barrier is increased
23
In a full-wave rectifier which uses two ideal diodes, the approximate relationships are :
Answer
B. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV = 2Vm
24
A forward biased silicon diode when carrying a negligible current has a voltage drop of 0.65 V. When the current through the diode is increased to 1A, it dissipates 500 mW. The ON-resistance of the diode is :
Answer
B. 0.5 Ω
25
Which of the following statement is correct for the basic transistor configurations?
Answer
A. CB configuration has low input impedance and a low current gain
26
A Bipolar Junction transistor is said to be operating in saturation region if
Answer
C. Both the junctions are forward biased
27
Pinch-off voltage of a JFET is :
Answer
D. The channel-to-gate reverse bias voltage at which the drain current starts to saturate
28
The best material for the gate region construction of a MOSFET is :
Answer
D. Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon
29
The common-emitter short circuit current gain β of a BJT :
Answer
C. Increases with I꜀ for low values of I꜀, reaches a maximum and then decreases with further increase in I꜀
30
For full-wave rectification, a four-diode bridge rectifier is claimed to have the following advantages over a two-diode circuit : (1) Less expensive transformer (2) Smaller size transformer and (3) Suitability for higher voltage application. Of these
Answer
A. Only (1) and (2) are true
31
A 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier wave is amplitude modulated by a sine wave of period 100 μs. Which of the following frequencies will not be present in the modulated output signal?
Answer
D. 1020 KHz
32
Two non-inverting amplifiers, one having a unity gain and the other having a gain of 10, are made using identical operational amplifiers. As compared to the unity gain amplifier, the amplifier circuit with gain 10 has :
Answer
A. Less negative feedback
33
‘Two non-inverting amplifiers, one having a u
As compared to the unity gain amplifier, the
made using identical operational amplifiers.
amplifier circuit with gain 10 has :
Answer
A. Less negative feedback
34
The image frequency of the AM super heterodyne receiver when it is tuned to receive a radio
station operating at 628 KHz 1s:
Answer
B. 1256 KHz
35
How many number of NOR gates are required to realise an AND function?
Answer
B. 3 7
36
Simplified form of the logic expression :
(X4V+Z)(X+¥+2Z)(X+Y+Z)
Answer
C. c) A+Y¥Z
37
The C —band is:
Answer
C. Ato 8 GHz
38
a8. If D is the distance between two co-channel cells and R is the cell radius, then Dy, is known
As |
Answer
A. Co-channel interference reduction factor
39
‘The cell using different carrier frequencies in a cluster is:
Answer
B. Adjacent cell
40
Which of the following is the correct statement in connection with satellite communication?
Answer
D. A satellite earth station must have as many receiver chain
41
Two forces of equal magnitude ‘P’ act at an angle ‘θ’ to each other. Their resultant will be:
Answer
B. 2P cos(θ/2)
42
The unit of energy in SI system of units is:
Answer
C. joule
43
The moment of inertia of a thin dise of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’, about an axis passing
through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is :
Answer
A. 0.5 mr”
44
The ratio of limiting friction to the normal reaction between the two bodies is defined as :
Answer
D. Coefficient of friction |
45
The loss of kinetic energy during the impact of collision of two inelastic bodies (mass = m₁, m₂, velocities = u₁, u₂) is given by:
Answer
B. [m₁m₂/2(m₁ + m₂)](u₁ − u₂)²
46
The maximum deflection at the centre of a simply supported beam of length ‘I’ with a
uniformly distributed load w /unit length is given by :
jl" Bol”
A furs aoe pease ;
“) 192 AI ®) j84 fel
5wi* 5ul*
( — ethetiai
384 EI
Answer
C. 384 EJ
47
Ifthe momentum of a given body is doubled, its kinetic energy will :
Answer
A. Increase by four times
48
For a given velocity of projectile, the horizontal range will be maximum when angle of
projection with the horizontal is :
Answer
A. 45°
49
Fora compound pendulum with distance ‘h’ from the point of suspension ‘O’ and a radiua of
evration ‘k,,' about an axis through the centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of
motion, the periodic time (¢,,) is given by :
fra
Answer
D. 22 kg +h?
| yg th \ gh
50
The force acting on a body when rotates along the radius of a circular path and is always
directed towards the centre of the path:
Answer
B. Centripetal force :
51
Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrode?
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
A casting method which produces castings within very close tolerances (+ 0.05 mm) and do
not require further machining is known as :
Answer
D. Investment casting |
53
A forging method in which only a small portion of the part is deformed at any particular time
and can be applied only to circular products is called :
Answer
A. Wobble forging
54
In which of the following non conventional machining process, the material is removed by
using abrasive slurry between the tool and work :
Answer
C. Ultrasonic machining
55
Which one of the following is an operation of producing flat surface at an angle to the axis of
the cutter?
Answer
A. Angular or bevel milling
56
The relationship between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is given by:
Where n = an exponent depending on tool and work piece and C = constant
Answer
A. VTⁿ = C
57
In a lathe, which one of the following is used to hold hollow work pieces to machine their
external surface :
Answer
B. EP) in terms of sales revenue is equal to;
FC FC
tee tt
VC SP
FC FC
58
If ‘FC’ is the total fixed cost, ‘VC’ is the variable cost per unit and ‘SP’ is the selling price per unit, then Brake Even Point (BEP) in terms of sales revenue is equal to :
Answer
D. FC/(1 − VC/SP)
59
If’ D' is the annual demand in units, ‘C’ is the order cost and‘ A’ is the holding cost per unit
per year, then the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is equal to:
| 0
Answer
B. A
2CH 2H |
C a Sana
60
Which one of the following layout is suitable for continuous production?
Answer
B. Product layout
61
Aclosed system is one in which :
Answer
A. Heat and work crosses the boundary of the system but mass does not crosses the
boundary
62
In 9 vapour compression refrigeration system before entering the throttle valve, the
_ refrigerant is in the form of :
Answer
C. High pressure saturated liquid
63
The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum when :
Answer
B. Final temperature is 0°K
64
In SI system of units, One tonne of refrigeration is taken as equivalent to:
Answer
C. c) 3.5 kW
65
‘Two stroke engines as compared to four stroke engines having same output rating and same
compression ratio have : '
Answer
C. Lower thermal efficiency
66
Aclosed gas turbine works on:
Answer
D. Joule cycle
67
The head against which a centrifugal pump has to work is known as ;
Answer
D. Manometric head
68
The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when :
Answer
A. The velocity of the wheel is half the velocity of the jet of water at inlet
69
The power transmitted by the belt is maximum when the maximum tension in the belt is :
Answer
C. Three times the centrifugal tension —_
70
Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are :
Answer
D. Non-parallel or intersecting but coplanar
71
In levelling, the reading is taken on a staff held at a point of known elevation of 123.45 m,
the staff reading is recorded as 1.875 m. The height of instrument is :
Answer
D. 125,325 m
72
According to IS:1904-1986, the minimum depth of foundation below natural ground surface
should be :
Answer
C. 500mm
73
Early gain of strength of cement is due to:
Answer
A. CaS
74
Which of the following is responsible for moat of undesirable properties of concrete?
Answer
C. CsA
75
In members where cracking in the tensile zone is harmful either because they are exposed to
the effects of weather or continuously exposed to moisture, the limit of maximum cracking :
width as per 15-456; 2000 is :
Answer
B. y) 0.2mm !
76
As per IS 456 -2000, the diameter of the reinforcing bars in slabs shall not exceed :
Answer
A. One eighth of the total thickness of the slab
77
The nominal maximum size of coarse aggregate should be as large as possible within the
limits specified but in no case greater than :
Answer
B. One-fourth the thickness of member
78
In steel structure, the slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members shall not
exceed :
Answer
D. 145
79
In anaerobic treatment of wastewater, the formation of methane is through: |
Answer
C. Both acetate and hydrogen
80
The incineration of municipal solid wastes may result in the formation of : f
Answer
Question Cancelled
81
The most important Article of Indian Constitution is :
Answer
A. Article a2 .
82
99 The first Non congress Prime Minister of India was :
Answer
B. Morarji Desai
83
The etate-level RT] Acts were first successfully enacted by the state governments of :
Answer
A. y Tamil Nadu
84
In 1887 Sri Narayanaguru was established a Siva temple at:
Answer
B. Aruvippuram '
85
The Guruvayur Sathyagraha was started on ————— 191.
Answer
B. 1: November
86
Ayvankali was started the first School for the lower castes at ————-— in 1904.
Answer
A. Venganur
87
Al Islam was published in 1906 by :
Answer
B. Vakkaom Abdul Khadar Moulavi
88
The headquartera of SAARC was at: :
Answer
B. Kathmandu
89
The National Food Security Act was passed in :
Answer
B. 2013
90
Hunter Commission was appointed in India by Lord Rippon in ;
Answer
C. 1882
91
The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at ———————— 1n June
1972.
Answer
A. Stockholm
92
_ 92. Al Hilal was published by :
Answer
D. Moula Abdul Kalam Azad
93
‘The Journal “Comrade” was published by :
Answer
A. Moulana Mohammed Ali
94
Who was the Nizam of Hyderabad during the accession to the Indian Union in the
independence Period’ Vs
Answer
C. Osman Ali Khan
95
Asa part of Bengal Partition 16% day of October 1905 was observed as :
Answer
A. Day of Mourning
96
Bandung Conference was held in 1956 at Bandung in:
Answer
C. Indonesia
97
The most prominent work on partition “Freedom at Midnight” is written by :
Answer
A. Dominigue Lapirre
98
Operation Vijay was associated with :
Answer
B. Kargil Crisis
99
Tashkent Agreement waa signed in 1966 by ————————_ and Ayub Khan.
Answer
A. Lal Bhahadur Sastri
100
Who wrote “Kerala Yesterday, Today and Tomorrow”?
Answer
B. EMS Nambudirippad
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