| Post Name | Assistant Engineer |
|---|---|
| Department | The Kerala Agro Industries Corporation Limited |
| Question Paper Code | 021/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 595/2024 |
| Date of Test | 10 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following lists have exclusive elements from the 5M's of Management? i. Capital, people, raw materials ii. Raw materials, processes, equipment iii. People, quality, equipment iv. Procedures, equipment, capital
Answer
B. i and ii only
2
A maximization linear programming problem with positive objective function coefficients and positive coefficients in all constraints with greater than or equal to type inequality and positive right-hand side can have :
Answer
C. unbounded solution
3
While continuously monitoring the measured characteristics of a product during the production process the QC department suspects unintended process change and wants intervention by the plant engineers and operators. Which of the following can be the possible reasons of such a conclusion? i. Variable control charts have points outside the lower and upper control limits ii. Attribute control charts have points outside the lower and upper control limits iii. All points plotted on a variable control chart are very close to the centre line such that the control limits have to be redefined iv. Percentage rejection exceeds the allowable number
Answer
A. i only
4
Check the following statement and identify which of the given combinations are correct? i) Mean represents the mid value in a sample ii) Median divides the sample into two equal halves iii) Mode is the central value in a sample iv) Mean is the most recurring value in a sample
Answer
B. ii) alone is correct
5
A project network prepared using CPM has a certain critical duration for its completion. The same project network prepared using PERT is also similar and has the same critical duration. Check what suits better? i) The project can always be completed exactly by the critical duration ii) The project completion may take less time than the critical duration iii) The project may take more than the critical duration to complete
Answer
D. ii) and iii) are correct
6
Check the statements related to ABC and VED classifications of inventory items. i) A and V come from a common list ii) V items coming in C class can be ignored iii) D items in A class need to be tightly controlled iv) A items in V class have to be loosely controlled
Answer
C. iii) and iv) are correct
7
While comparing different production systems : i) mass production is less complex and needs less number of production centres ii) job production systems are more complex iii) batch production and job production are two different names of a system iv) mass production and continuous production refers to the same type of production system
Answer
B. none of the above are correct
8
Method study and work study focus on i) productivity improvement ii) setting standard procedures iii) identifying and eliminating foreign work elements iv) establishing standard work elements and time for jobs
Answer
D. all the above are correct
9
Principles of motion economy are : i) defined for use of body elements ii) defined for design of tools iii) defined for the use of work place
Answer
A. all the above are true
10
One of the following is exactly the list of the key elements of a company structure. Pick it out.
Answer
A. Chain of Command, Span of Control, Centralisation vs. Decentralisation, Departmentalisation
11
The major alloying element in Aluminium 7xxx series is
Answer
A. Zinc
12
Which of the following is a wrong statement regarding Iron-iron carbide system?
Answer
C. -ferrite has FCC structure
13
Reversed stress cycle means?
Answer
D. Mean stress is equal to zero
14
Which of the following hardness tests uses diamond pyramid indenter? (i) Brinell hardness test (ii) Vickers hardness test (iii) Knoop hardness test (iv) Rockwell hardness test
Answer
B. only (ii) and (iii)
15
Which of the following are widely used for the inspection of holes?
Answer
B. Pneumatic Comparators
16
Which of the following is not a lathe accessory?
Answer
C. Thread chasing dial
17
Which of the following is not an internal grinder?
Answer
A. Swing frame grinder
18
A cutting tool gave a tool life of 49 minutes when operated at a cutting speed of 200m/min. If the cutting speed is changed to 140m/min, what will be the tool life in minutes. Assume n = 0.5
Answer
C. 100
19
Climb milling is also called
Answer
D. Down milling
20
Structure of a grinding wheel means
Answer
A. How closely abrasive grains are packed
21
In power law model for Non Newtonian fluids given by . The value of n for shear thickening fluids is
Answer
C. greater than 1
22
A liquid will wet a solid surface if
Answer
A. Adhesive Force > Cohesive force
23
A flow is categorised as compressible when
Answer
A. Fluid density varies by more than 5%
24
The reading obtained from a U Tube manometer corresponds to which of the following quantities
Answer
B. Gauge pressure
25
Which of the following occurs when air vessels are fitted to suction and delivery side of a reciprocating pump (i) Continuous supply of liquid is ensured (ii) The power consumption by the pump is increased (iii) Pump can be run at higher speeds without cavitation
Answer
A. (i) and (iii) are correct
26
Pascal's law states that when pressure is applied to an enclosed fluid at rest, it is :
Answer
D. Transmitted equally in all directions
27
Oil is transported through a pipe of diameter 800 mm with a velocity V. The diameter of the pipe is then gradually reduced to 200 mm, now the velocity of oil in the pipe will be
Answer
C. 16V
28
A jet of water strikes normally on a stationary flat plate then the force exerted by the jet on the plate depends primarily on
Answer
B. Rate of change of momentum of the jet
29
The discharge of a single acting reciprocating pump is given by Q. If the speed is doubled and the length of stroke is halved the discharge will become
Answer
D. Q
30
Which of the following can be inferred about the vorticity of a rotational fluid flow?
Answer
D. Non-zero and fluid particles rotate about their own axes
31
Initially, two planar links are separate. They are then connected by revolute joint. The number of degrees of freedom lost due to the introduction of this revolute joint is
Answer
B. 2
32
A four bar mechanism ABCD the following link length : AB = 20 mm, BC = 35 mm, CD = 45 mm and DA = 50 mm. If the link BC is fixed, the resulting mechanism will be a
Answer
A. Crank rocker mechanism
33
Which of the following is the most influencing factor that determines the spring constant of a helical spring?
Answer
C. Wire diameter
34
The circular pitch of spur gear is equal to . Then its module will be
Answer
D. 1
35
The maximum and minimum energy in one cycle of operation of an engine are 2500 N.m and 1500 N.m respectively. If the total work done per cycle is 10,000 N.m, what is the coefficient of fluctuation of energy?
Answer
A. 0.1
36
A linear elastic isotropic material is incompressible. Then its Poisson ratio is
Answer
A. 0.5
37
A block of volume is experiencing strains 0.01 (tensile), 0.002 (tensile), and 0.01 (compressive) in the three mutually perpendicular X, Y and Z directions respectively. Then the change in volume for the cube is
Answer
C. 0.002
38
The resilience of an elastic material can be found out by integrating the stress-strain curve up to the
Answer
D. Elastic limit
39
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the meshing of two involute spur gears? (i) The change of center-to-center distance does not affect the velocity ratio (ii) The pressure angle does not change
Answer
A. Both are correct
40
Which of the following statements is/are correct about screw threads? (i) For British Association thread, the angle of the thread is (ii) For whitworth thread, the angle of the thread is
Answer
D. none of these
41
Which of the following air standard cycles have two isobaric processes and two isentropic processes?
Answer
D. None of the above
42
Which of the following relation is correct about specific fuel consumption (s.f.c.) and brake mean effective pressure (b.m.e.p.) in a Compression Ignition engine?
Answer
C. As b.m.e.p. increases, s.f.c. decreases and then increases
43
The gravimetric composition of air is approximated as 75% Nitrogen and 25% Oxygen, neglecting the traces of other elements. What is the amount of Nitrogen (in kg) included for complete combustion of 1 kg of Carbon, if air is used for combustion?
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
An ideal refrigerant should possess : (i) High thermal conductivity (ii) High latent heat of vapourisation (iii) High specific heat Which of the above point is/are correct?
Answer
A. only (i) and (ii)
45
In a psychrometric chart, the constant enthalpy line coincides with
Answer
D. Constant wet bulb temperature line
46
The following statements are related to Fourier law of heat conduction (i) Heat conduction takes place at steady state. (ii) The law is based on experimental evidence. (iii) The law is applicable to solid, liquid or gas Which of the above point is/are correct?
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
47
A black body has the following properties : (i) It absorbs all the incident radiation falling on it (ii) It emits maximum amount of thermal radiations at all wavelengths at any specified temperature (iii) The radiation emitted by a black body is independent of direction Which of the above point is/are correct?
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii & iii)
48
In a double pipe heat exchanger, hot water flows at a rate of 3600 kg/h and gets cooled from to . The cooling water enters at 5000 kg/h, . What is the outlet temperature of cooling water?
Answer
C. 46.6
49
The volumetric efficiency in a reciprocating air compressor can be improved by the following conditions : (i) Very high speed (ii) Large clearance volume (iii) Low intake air temperature Which of the above point is/are not correct?
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
50
In a four cylinder petrol engine, the standard firing order is
Answer
C. 1-3-4-2
51
What is the power required to pull a 3-bottom, 25 cm MB plough at a depth of 10 cm and a speed of 1 m/s in soil offering a resistance of 0.5 kg/cm²?
Answer
B. 5 hp
52
Which of the following statements are correct in the case of disc plough? (i) A disc plough can be used in too hard and dry soil where a MB plough cannot penetrate (ii) Disc plough does not work well in sticky soils (iii) A disc plough could not work well even after a considerable part of the disc is worn off (iv) Disc plough is not suitable for covering surface trash
Answer
C. (i) and (iv) are correct
53
What is the draft acting on a tillage implement when the pulling force is F, the vertical force is V, the side force is S, the angle of inclination of F with the horizontal in the vertical plane is , and its inclination in the transverse plane is ?
Answer
A. F
54
Which among the following metering devices are used for precision metering of seeds? (i) Vertical rotor type (ii) Belt type (iii) Pneumatic type (iv) Internal double run type
Answer
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
55
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to sprayers and dusters? (i) Charging of spray or dust particles would reduce the amount of drift in electrostatic sprayers (ii) Hydraulic atomization depends upon liquid pressure to supply atomizing energy (iii) In gas atomization, the spray liquid is broken up by a low velocity gas stream (iv) Liquid is fed under high pressure to the centre of a low-speed rotating device and is broken up by centrifugal force
Answer
D. (i) and (ii) correct
56
Which of the following are the criteria specified by the BIS for mechanical grain threshers? (i) The total grain loss should not be more than 5 per cent. (ii) Broken grains should be less than 5 per cent. (iii) The clean grain output should not have foreign matter more than 2 per cent.
Answer
C. (i) and (iii) are true
57
Name of the mower with high-speed swinging knives, operating either in horizontal plane or around horizontal cylinder is __________
Answer
D. Flail mower
58
Which is the sequential order of components in the power transmission system of a 4-wheel tractor?
Answer
B. Engine - Clutch - Gear box - Differential - Final drive - Rear wheels
59
Which of the following are the functions of differential unit in a 2WD Tractor? (i) On strait travel, it allows both rear wheels of the Tractor to get equal power and speed (ii) On turns, it allows the inner side drive wheel to move slower than the outer wheel (iii) It allows both the front wheels to move at same speed on both strait path and turns (iv) It helps in shifting the transmission gear of the Tractor
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
60
If traction is the driving force developed by a traction device, then the ratio of the net pull produced to the dynamic normal load on the traction device is _______
Answer
B. Net traction coefficient
61
The horse power developed by a pair of bullocks in pulling a plough at a forward speed of 3.6 kmph is 1.2 hp. the plough makes a furrow of 20 cm wide and 10 cm deep. At this field condition; what will be the reading in the dynamometer connected between animal yolk and the plough
Answer
B. 90 kgf and indicates draft
62
Analyze the following statements regarding types of implements and choose the correct combination (i) The implement is pulled and guided from a single hitch point and is never completely supported by the tractor (ii) The linkage usually provides rotational stability about the longitudinal axis and it permits depth or height control by vertical support from the tractor, if desired, while the tool is in the operating position (iii) In the usual situation the hinge axis is transverse at the rear of the tractor and the hitch provides rotational stability about the longitudinal axis (iv) The implement may respond directly to tractor steering, but if a vertical hinge axis is super imposed on the horizontal axis, the rear of the implement is guided by its on wheel or wheels
Answer
A. (i) is trailed implement, (ii) is mounted implement, (iii) is semi mounted implement and (iv) is semi mounted implement
63
Which of the following methods give rapid depreciation during the early years and slower depreciation as the machine becomes older
Answer
D. Declining balance method, estimated value method and sum of the years digit method
64
Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options (i) The drawbar power output is always less than the PTO output (ii) The sum of losses such as drive wheel slippage, tractor rolling resistance and friction losses may be represented by a coefficient known as Tractive and Transmission coefficient (iii) Tractive and Transmission coefficient can be defined as the ratio of PTO power to drawbar power
Answer
D. (i) and (ii) are correct
65
The _______ of a machine is a function of the rated width of the machine, the percentage of rated width actually utilized, the speed of travel and the amount of field time lost during the operation
Answer
A. Effective field capacity
66
The full form of ISO-the text procedures and standards for agricultural tractors is
Answer
C. International Organization for Standardization
67
The interaction of central vertical plane passing through the seat center-line of the theoretical pivot axis between a human torso and thighs is called
Answer
A. Seat Index Point (SIP)
68
The unit of Sound Pressure Level (SPL) is
Answer
B. dB
69
The total energy received from the sun per unit time on a unit area, perpendicular to the rays of the sun, just outside the earth's atmosphere, at the mean distance of the earth from the sun is known as
Answer
C. Solar Constant
70
The difference in the energy of an electron in the valence band and the innermost subshell of the conduction band is
Answer
B. Forbidden gap
71
Blade stalling in wind turbines at low tip speed ratios is primarily caused by
Answer
C. High angle of attack due to low axial induction factor
72
During biochemical conversion of biomass to bioethanol, inhibition of yeast fermentation at high sugar concentrations is mainly due to
Answer
B. Osmotic stress on microbial cells
73
Which of the following refers to the thermochemical process in which biomass is heated in the absence of oxygen to produce solid char, liquid bio-oil and non-condensable gases?
Answer
A. Pyrolysis
74
Assertion (A) : Anaerobic digestion proceeds most efficiently when the C:N ratio of the feedstock is maintained between 25:1 and 30:1 Reason (R) : At C:N ratios lower than 10:1, excessive ammonia is produced, which inhibits micorbial activity and reduces gas production Choose the correct option :
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
75
The major limitation of updraft gasifiers is that its restricts their application with high-volatility fuels because of ________
Answer
C. High tar production in the product gas
76
At field capacity, the soil micro pores are filled with _________ and any further drainage is slow.
Answer
B. Water
77
The infiltration rate of the soil _______ during the initial period of irrigation.
Answer
A. Decreases
78
Union of a first order and a second order stream resulted the formation of a __________ order stream.
Answer
B. Second order
79
If the velocity of runoff water is doubled its erosive capacity is _________
Answer
C. Increased four times
80
___________ is the fraction of rainfall converting into surface runoff.
Answer
D. Runoff coefficient
81
Method of direct levelling in which the elevation of points are taken at measured intervals along a given line is called
Answer
B. Profile levelling
82
If the viscosity of a fluid is given in poise, the value should be divided by _______ to get the equivalent value in MKS units
Answer
A. 98.1
83
In remote sensing, the number and width of spectral bands in the sensing device is indicated by __________ resolution.
Answer
D. Spectral resolution
84
The line representing the sum of pressure head and datum head with respect to any reference line is called _________.
Answer
C. Hydraulic Gradient line
85
The value of constant K in Bazin's equation for an earthen channel with rough surface is
Answer
D. 3.17
86
A pump is required for a sprinkler irrigation system, operating at 3 kg/ pressure. The most suitable pump type is
Answer
C. Centrifugal pump
87
In drip irrigation system, which filter is essential when irrigation water contains algae and organic matter
Answer
C. Sand/media filter
88
A sprinkler applies water at 13 mm/hour. The infiltration rate of soil is 8 mm/hour. The field problem most likely to occur is
Answer
A. Runoff
89
A field receives 50 mm rainfall in 5 days. The losses due to evapotranspiration and deep percolation are 20% of rainfall. Calculate the drainage coefficient
Answer
B. 8 mm/day
90
A monoblock centrifugal pump supplies 0.04 /sec of discharge against a total head of 15m. The pump efficiency is 70%. Calculate the brake horse power required.
Answer
D. 11.4
91
During the drying of grains under constant drying air conditions, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. The falling-rate period begins when the surface of the grain becomes unsaturated
92
A uniform steel rod of length L, cross-sectional area A and Young's modulus E is subjected to an axial tensile force P. If the elongation of the rod is δ, the force-deformation relationship for the rod is given by:
Answer
A. P = EAδ/L
93
During the drying of an agricultural product under constant air temperature and pressure, the equilibrium moisture content (EMC) of the material will decrease when;
Answer
C. The relative humidity of the drying air is decreased
94
Which of the following statements regarding the operation of an LSU drier is not correct?
Answer
B. The drying air temperature remains constant throughout the column due to counter-current heat exchange
95
Which of the statements given below are correct? (i) Hammer mill utilize impact force (ii) Ball mill uses impact and attrition force (iii) Jaw crusher uses crushing force (iv) Attrition mill uses shearing and rubbing force
Answer
A. All options are correct
96
Considering the following statements regarding blanching and thermal processing. 1. Blanching is insufficient to ensure commercial sterility but adequate to inactivate polyphenol oxidase in vegetables. 2. Over-blanching may lead to increased leaching of water-soluble nutrients. 3. Blanching improves microbial lethality during canning by increasing product pH. 4. Time-temperature combinations in thermal processing are designed based on the most heat-resistant pathogenic microorganism. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
97
Freezing preserves foods mainly by
Answer
D. Reducing water activity through ice formation
98
The hysteresis effect in drying of foods refers to
Answer
B. Difference between adsorption and desorption moisture curves
99
The LSU (Louisiana State University) dryer is best classified as a
Answer
C. Continuous flow mixed-flow dryer
100
Considering the following statements concerning grain storage technologies : 1. Cover and Plinth storage is suitable only for short-term storage due to limited protection against insects. 2. Hermetic storage suppresses insect activity by reducing oxygen and increasing carbon dioxide concentration. 3. RCC ring bins provide better protection against rodents compared to Pusa bins. 4. Moisture migration is a major cause of spoilage in sealed hermetic storage systems Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
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