| Post Name | Assistant Engineer - United Electrical Industries Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 231/2023 |
| Category Code | 494/2022 |
| Date of Test | 23 November 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The radius of a Mohrβs Circle gives directly :
Answer
C. Maximum Shear Stress at a point
2
The volumetric strain in a body with Youngβs Modulus βE β and Poissonβs Ratio β1/mβ subjected to a normal tensile stress βpβ in only one direction is :
Answer
D. p (m β 2)/mE
3
The stone blocks are finely chisel dressed and their faces are in perfect true shape in :
Answer
D. Ashlar Fine
4
Floor Space Index is the ratio between :
Answer
D. None of the above
5
If the fineness modulus of a given quantity of aggregate is 8.2, the average size of aggregates varies from :
Answer
C. 20 mm to 40 mm
6
The workability of concrete is influenced by :
Answer
B. Size of Aggregate
7
The long term Modulus of Elasticity of M25 grade concrete whose creep coefficient is 1.5, is :
Answer
C. 10,000 M Pa
8
The levelling method used, to find the difference in elevation between two points, when it is not possible to set up the level, midway between them is :
Answer
D. Reciprocal Levelling
9
In Chain Surveying, correction for slope to be applied in a land surveyed of length 100 m and level difference 1 m is :
Answer
D. β 0.5 cm
10
Youngβs Modulus of Elasticity for a perfectly rigid body is :
Answer
B. Infinity
11
If a tensile stress of 60 kN/m2 and a compressive stress of 50 kN/m2 are acting at right angles to each other on a piece of material then resultant stress on a plane, the normal of which makes an angle 45Β° with 60 kN/m2 will be :
Answer
B. 5 kN/m2
12
The resultant of two coplanar concurrent tensile forces : (i) 20 kN inclined NE 45Β° (ii) 20 kN inclined NW 45Β° is
Answer
D. 28.28 kN
13
A force of 20 kN is acting through point B at an angle of 30Β° with line AB, 5 m long. Moment at point A due to the force at B, is :
Answer
B. 50 kNm
14
A simply supported Beam AB of span 6 m, acted upon by a concentrated upward force 10 kN at 2 m from A and a clockwise moment 20 kNm at 2 m from B. The reactions at the supports are :
Answer
A. 10 kN downward at A and zero at B
15
A Trapezium with parallel sides 5 cm and 10 cm and height 6 cm is kept symmetrically about Y-Y Axis with its base along X-X axis. The coordinates of centroid of the trapezium in cm is:
Answer
D. (0, 2.67)
16
The Force exerted by a man weighing 700 N on the floor of a lift moving with an upward acceleration of 2.45 m/s2 is :
Answer
A. 875 N
17
The Coefficient of uniformity of soil with Coefficient of Curvature as unity is : 2 ο© D30 οΉ D30
Answer
A. οͺ οΊ
18
Critical Hydraulic Gradient of a soil with Specific Gravity βGβ, Porosity βnβ, Void ratio βeβ is : G +1
Answer
B. (G β 1) (1 β n ) 1+e G +1
19
For an irrotational 3D flow which of the following is not correct?
Answer
C. du _ dv
20
If intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then direct runoff will be :
Answer
D. either
21
If BOD β Biochemical Oxygen Demand, DO β Dissolved Oxygen, then for Safe drinking water BOD/DO is :
Answer
D. None of these
22
The dilution factor of sewage effluent for direct discharge into the river water without any treatment must be :
Answer
C. Neither
23
Recommended width of Roadway for two lane traffic for National Highways in plain and rolling terrain by IRC is :
Answer
B. 12 m
24
A vehicle is travelling at a speed of 90 kmph in a Four lane two-way traffic road. If the longitudinal friction coefficient is 0.35 and reaction time is 2.5 sec, the Safe Stopping Distance (in metre) for the vehicle is :
Answer
C. 152 m
25
Which of the following statement is false for PERT ?
Answer
B. Network is constructed based on activities
26
Which of the following is an inversion of single-slider-crank chain?
Answer
A. Hand pump
27
If I, Ο 1 , Ο 2 , Ο , E, e and K represent the moment of inertia, maximum speed, minimum speed, mean speed, kinetic energy at mean speed, maximum fluctuation of energy and coefficient of fluctuation of speed of a fly wheel respectively, the maximum fluctuation of energy in that flywheel is equal to :
Answer
D. All of the above
28
For maximum power transmission, the velocity of the belt is obtained as T T
Answer
B. m 3m T T C) D se
29
The ratio of friction torque with uniform wear to friction torque with uniform pressure in flat and conical pivots, is :
Answer
C. 3/4
30
The height of Watt governor is :
Answer
D. Inversely proportional to the square of the speed
31
The equation of motion of a body over a smooth surface is given by the relation s = 10 t + 2t2 where (s) is in metres and (t) in seconds. If the mass of the body is 20 kg, find the magnitude of force responsible for the motion :
Answer
D. 80 N
32
An inclined plane with the following details is shown in fig below : W = Weight of the body, Ξ± = Angle which the inclined plane makes with the horizontal, R = Normal reaction, ΞΌ = Coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane and Ο = Angle of friction, such that ΞΌ = tan Ο Then the minimum force ( P1 ) required to keep the body in equilibrium when it is at the point of sliding downwards is obtained as : sin (Ξ± β Ο ) cos (Ξ± + Ο )
Answer
A. P1 = W
33
If the modulus of elasticity of a material is 150 GPa and its modulus of rigidity is 60 GPa, its Poissonβs ratio is obtained as :
Answer
B. 1/4
34
Which one of the following is the value of bending moment at the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length if the length of the beam is l ? wl 2
Answer
B. 8 wl wl 2
35
What is the equation for estimating Eulerβs crippling load for columns with one end fixed and the other end free? Ο 2 EI Ο 2 EI
Answer
A. β B βss
36
Rankine cycle comprises of
Answer
C. two isentropic processes and two reversible constant pressure processes
37
Efficiency of Otto cycle is more than that of Diesel cycle for the same compression and heat input because, in Otto cycle
Answer
D. heat rejection is lower
38
The velocity of steam at the outlet of a nozzle under ideal conditions, for a heat drop of 500 kJ/kg will be :
Answer
A. 1000 m/s
39
As pressure increases, the enthalpy of evaporation of water :
Answer
B. decreases
40
In an office, the drinking water needs are met by cooling tap water in a refrigerated water fountain from 35 to 18Β°C with an average flow rate being 18 kg/h. If the COP of this refrigerator is 3.1, the required power input to this refrigerator is :
Answer
C. 115 W
41
When the barometer reads 750.0 mm of mercury, a pressure of 10 kPa suction at that location is equivalent to :
Answer
D. 90 kPa
42
If the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is stated as Poise, one unit of poise is equivalent to : 1
Answer
B. Pa.s
43
The equation of a stream line in a two-dimensional flow is given by : dy _ dx
Answer
A. u U
44
It is required to measure the velocity of air with density equal to 1.2 kg/m3 using a pitot tube
Answer
C. oefficient = 1). If the head difference in a vertical U tube fitted with water is 12 mm, then the approximate velocity of air in m/s is :
45
A similar model of a pump is built to a ratio of 1:2. If the model pumps the same fluid as the prototype at the same rotation speed, the ratio of model power to prototype power input is : 1 1
Answer
A. similar model of a pump is built to a ratio of 1:2. If the model pumps the same fluid as the prototype at the same rotation speed, the ratio of model power to prototype power input is : 1 1
46
The time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm thick plate with the drill rotating at 100 rpm and moving at a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev is :
Answer
D. 60 s
47
Among the following Non-destructive testing methods, which method would be used to examine a completed weld for surface defects?
Answer
C. Dye-penetrant
48
Which one of the following is the composition of 18-4-1 high-speed steel?
Answer
B. 18 percent tungsten, 4 percent chromium and 1 percent vanadium
49
Which one of the following is Scab?
Answer
A. Sand casting defect
50
Pearlite consists of :
Answer
D. 13% cementite and 87 % ferrite
51
An initially relaxed system of input x (t) and output y (t) is represented as 3 dy (t ) / dt + 3 y (t ) = 6x (t ) . The impulse response of the system is :
Answer
C. 2 e βt u (t )
52
The transfer function of a second order system is given by 36 /( S 2 + 8 S + 36 ) . What is the nature of the system?
Answer
C. Under damped
53
Choose the relationship between a and b, such that the transfer function (S +
Answer
B. is a lead compensator :
54
In a wattmeter, the nature of the pressure coil is :
Answer
C. highly resistive
55
The voltage source is give its output as per the equation 5 + 2 sin(2 t ) volts. What is the reading of the PMMC voltmeter connected across the voltage source?
Answer
B. 5 volts
56
The effect which give protection against overload in MCB is :
Answer
C. Thermal
57
A generating station supplies power to four different regions with their maximum demand are 10 MW, 20 MW, 40 MW and 50 MW. The generating station maximum demand is observed as 80 MW. Calculate the diversity factor of the generating station :
Answer
B. 1.5
58
A house consists of 7 light points and 5 fan points. As per the Indian standard, how many sub-circuit are needed?
Answer
D. 2
59
A cable of 50 km long have an insulation resistance of 2 MΞ©. Find the insulation resistance of the same cable of length 100 km from the following :
Answer
B. 1 MΞ©
60
In a cable, the thickness of insulation around the conductor depends on :
Answer
B. Voltage
61
The power device suitable for an application in which high switching frequency and lower power is :
Answer
A. MOSFET
62
In a thyristor, the multimeter shows positive voltage at the anode terminal with respect to the cathode terminal, then the number of blocked p-n junction is:
Answer
C. 1
63
The ripple free current flow through the load at the output of a single phase full converter is 40 A. Then the average current through each thyristor is :
Answer
D. 20 A
64
The ripple peak to peak current flowing through the filter capacitor of a buck converter is found to be 2 A. The ripple free DC current flow through the output load resistance is 10 A. Then the peak current flow through the semiconductor switch is :
Answer
B. 11 A
65
The gate signal for the switching of a buck converter is shown below. Determine the output voltage of the converter, if the input voltage is 100 V :
Answer
B. 30 V
66
The speed and torque of a DC motor at a particular output power are 1000 rpm and 100 Nm. Calculate the torque of the DC motor rotate at a speed of 500 rpm under the same output power is :
Answer
B. 200 Nm
67
The power factor of the possible load connected at the secondary side of a transformer for a zero voltage regulation at full load is :
Answer
C. Leading
68
It is observed that the frequency of the stator and rotor currents of a three phase 4-pole induction motor are 50 Hz and 2 Hz respectively. Calculate the slip of the motor :
Answer
D. 0.04
69
The developed reluctance torque in a salient pole synchronous motor is maximum at a load angle of :
Answer
A. 45Β°
70
The main losses responsible to damp the hunting phenomena in a synchronous machine is :
Answer
B. Rotor copper losses
71
The synchronous reactance (Xd) of a generator 100 MVA and 10 kV is 0.5 pu. The Xd value in pu for a base of 200 MVA and 20 kV is :
Answer
B. 0.25
72
An alternator of rating 10 MVA, 11 kV with 10% of reactance is connected to a busbar. Find the short circuit level at the busbar :
Answer
C. 100 MVA
73
Which of the following are provided to reduce the ferrantic effect in the transmission line?
Answer
D. Shunt reactor
74
The generator bus of per unit voltage 1.5 β 5Β° is connected to an infinite bus of per unit voltage 1.0β 5Β° through a 0.5 per unit reactance. Then the active power will flow from :
Answer
B. no active power will flow
75
A long underground cable of 200 km length have a surge impedance of 50 Ξ©. What is the value of surge impedance of the same cable length 100 km?
Answer
C. 50 Ξ©
76
A mechanism for carrier motion in semiconductor which occurs when an electric field is applied :
Answer
C. Carrier drift
77
A 0.9 ΞΌ F capacitor is charged to 50 V is discharged to 25 V through a resistive path of 20 kΞ©. How long in milliseconds, it will take for the discharge operation?
Answer
A. 1.25
78
At ββββββ Hz, is an RLC series circuit, maximum voltage occurs across the capacitor C if R = 2 Ξ© L = 1 H and C = 0.1 ΞΌ F . 1 2
Answer
B. 2Ο Ο
79
If β f1 β is the resonant frequency of parallel LC circuit and β f2 β is that of parallel RLC circuit, then which of the following is correct?
Answer
D. f1 = 2 Ο f2
80
Which of the following amplifier configuration has highest input impedance?
Answer
D. Boot strap darlington amplifier
81
In a CE amplifier circuit, transistor is biased in such a way that the quiescent operating point is situated towards saturation on the load line. Which of the following is correct regarding the output voltage?
Answer
B. Sinusoidal waveform with clipped negative half cycles
82
In hexadecimal system, the decimal 54 is :
Answer
C. 271
83
Due to ββββββ, MOS logic gates do not have current hogging problem.
Answer
A. High impedance of gate terminal
84
Dynamic power consumed by a CMOS, logic circuit operating at frequency βf β is proportional to :
Answer
D. 2 f VDD
85
CMOS inverter can act as amplifier, when :
Answer
C. NMOS and PMOS in saturation
86
Let the z = 0 plane in rectangular coordinate system has uniform surface charge distribution of Ο s Coulombs/m2. The permittivity of the medium is Ξ΅ and zΜ is the unit vector along z direction. Then the flux density at any point z units away from the plane is : Οs Οs
Answer
C. zΛ
87
Which of the following statements about the field quantities at the interface two different media is not correct?
Answer
A. with finite surface current, the normal component of magnetic field is discontinuous through the interface
88
Which one of the following represents the equation for the E-field of linearly polarized uniform plane wave propagating in the x-direction?
Answer
D. ΞΌβ βx 2 βt2
89
For the far field, E, of electromagnetic wave, radiated from a current element, which of the following is not correct?
Answer
A. E is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the element
90
A 65 Ξ© lossless transmission line is terminated with load impedance Z L = 65 β j 75 Ξ© . If the incident power to the load is 100 mW, the power absorbed by the load is :
Answer
B. 75 mW
91
Impulse-train sampling of x[n] is used to obtain g [n ] = ο₯ x [n] Ξ΄ [n β kN ] . If X (e ) = 0 for k = ββ jw 3Ο β€ w β€ Ο , determine the largest value for the sampling interval N which ensures that no 7 aliasing takes place while sampling x[n ] :
Answer
A. 2
92
The unit sample response of the system described by the difference equation 1 y [n ] = y [n β 1] + 2x [n ] is : 2 n n ο¦1 οΆ ο¦1 οΆ
Answer
A. 2 ο§ ο· u [n]
93
The first three DFT coefficients of the four-point DFT of a real sequence are given as X
Answer
C. β2 β j 2
94
F If x [n ] ββ― β―β X (w ) , then the time shifting property of the Fourier transform is given by :
Answer
C. F β―β e β j wk X (w ) x [n β k ] ββ― F dX (w )
95
Which of the following is not a technique for designing FIR filters?
Answer
D. Bilinear Transformation design
96
A band limited message signal x (t ) is multiplied by a high frequency sinusoidal carrier c (t ) will result ββββββ types of modulation.
Answer
A. Double Side Band Suppressed Carrier Modulation
97
An FM broadcast station uses a message signal bandwidth of 15 KHz and a frequency deviation of 75 KHz. The transmission bandwidth as per the Carsonβs rule is :
Answer
B. 180 KHz
98
The minimum bandwidth needed for transmitting 4 KHz signal using PCM with 1024 quantising levels is :
Answer
D. 40 KHz
99
An image uses 1024 Γ 1024 pixel elements. Each of the pixel can take any of the eight distinguishable intensity levels. The maximum entropy of the above mentioned image will be :
Answer
B. 3 Γ 220 bits
100
For a (7, 4) cyclic code with a generator polynomial xΒ³ + xΒ² + 1. Find the code word for the data 1010:
Answer
C. 1110010
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