| Post Name | Assistant Finance Manager - COIRFED 284/2024, 285/2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 144/2025 |
| Category Code | 284/2024, 285/2024 |
| Date of Test | 7 November 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Cash inflow in the case of Net Present Value method of capital budgeting is :
Answer
D. Profit before depreciation, but after tax
2
Which of the following statement is/are correct to capital budgeting techniques?
(i) Accounting rate of return method considers profit after depreciation and tax for
evaluating the profitability of projects.
(ii) Pay-back period method considers the cash inflows during the whole life of the
project.
(iii) Net Present Value may be positive or negative, but never zero.
(iv) IRR is the discount rate at which NPV is zero.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iv)
3
What will be the cost of debt capital in the following case?
A company issues Rs. 2,00,000, 10% debentures. The tax rate applicable is 50% :
Answer
B. 5%
4
Which of the following statement is/ are correct to Capital structure?
(i) At financial break -even point earnings before interest and tax is more than the
fixed financial charges.
(ii) Point of indifference is a concept which can be used for determining capital
structure.
(iii) Optimum capital structure is the composition of various sources of capital by which
cost of capital shall not be minimum.
(iv) Optimum capital structure is the composition of various sources of capital by which
the value of the firm can be maximised
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iv)
5
Determine EOQ from the following information :
Annual consumption in units 500
Cost of placing an order Rs. 50
Cost of holding inventory 5% of material cost
Cost of material Rs. 100 per unit
Answer
B. 100 units
6
From the following information calculate Current Ratio :
Stock in trade Rs. 15,000
Debtors Rs. 8,000
Cash Rs. 3,000
Plant and machinery Rs. 4,000
Creditors Rs. 10,000
Cost of goods sold Rs. 50,000
Answer
D. 2.6
7
Which of the following statements is/ are correct to Funds flow Statement, when it is
considered in its broader sense?
(i) Statement of changes in working capital is not part of Funds Flow statement
(ii) Schedule of changes in working capital shows the changes in the working capital
during a financial year
(iii) Non- fund or non- operating item which have already been credited to Profit and
Loss Account are added to closing balance of Profit and Loss Account given in the
Balance sheet for calculating fund from operation.
(iv) Non- fund or non- operating item which have already been debited to Profit and
Loss Account are added to Closing balance of Profit and Loss Account given in the
Balance sheet for calculating fund from operation.
Answer
B. Only (iv)
8
Which of the following statements is/are correct to Financial Analysis?
(i) It facilitates forecasting of future prospects of the firm
(ii) Creditors and suppliers of a firm are not interested in financial analysis
(iii) Comparison of financial data of a company for several years is called horizontal
analysis
(iv) Cost-volume profit analysis is not a method of Financial Analysis
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
9
Match the following :
(1) Trend analysis (i) Receivables management
(2)
Answer
A. (1)-(v), (2)- (iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii)
10
Which of the following statements is/are correct to working capital management?
(i) In total approach of estimation of working capital requirement depreciation and
other non-cash items are ignored.
(ii) Percentage of sales method is one of the methods of estimating working capital
requirement
(iii) Production policy and credit policy of the firm do not influence the working capital
requirement.
(iv) Work-in-process conversion period and receivable conversion period influence the
working capital requirement.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iv)
11
As per section 2(31), Person includes the following :
(i) Municipality
(ii) District Board
(iii) University
(iv) BOI
Answer
D. (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) only
12
Compute the residential Status of Mr. Mohan for the previous year 2024-25, if he did not
go out of India before this and came back to India on 10th April ,2025 in the following
case :
• He goes for employment purposes to the U.K and leaves India on 15th
September, 2024
Answer
C. Non-Resident
13
Which of the following is/are correct?
Find out the fully exempted allowances from the following :
(i) Dearness allowance
(ii) Hill allowance
(iii) Tiffin allowance
(iv) Overtime allowance
Answer
D. None of the above
14
Compute the annual value of the house in the following cases :
Expected Rent Rs. 2,00,000
House let-out
Answer
A. Rs. 20,000 p.m.
House tax paid by owner Rs. 18,000 (10% of municipal value)
House remains vacant for 1 month
15
Which of the following is/are correct in connection with casual income?
(i) Any receipt which is of a casual and non- recurring nature.
(ii) Voluntary payment received in exercise of an occupation.
Answer
A. Only (i) is correct
16
Which of the following is/are correct?
Zero Coupon Bond:
(i) Issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or
infrastructure debt fund notified by the Central Government under Sec. 10(47) or a
Public Sector company or a Scheduled bank on or after 1st June 2025.
(ii) In respect of which no payment and benefit is received and receivable before
maturity or redemption from such issuing entity.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
17
–––––––––– is a device to avoid tax by high income group of assessees by transferring
securities to low-income class of assessees on the eve of the due date of interest.
Answer
B. Bond washing transactions
18
Loss of Speculation business can be set- off from :
(i) Speculation income only
(ii) Non-Speculation income
(iii) Both above
(iv) None of the above
Answer
A. Only (i) is correct
19
Under the following sections, which all deductions will be entitled to individuals only :
(i) 80CCC
(ii) 80G
(iii) 80CCD
(iv) 80 U
Answer
D. (i), (ii) , (iii) and (iv) only
20
Relief under Section 89 is allowed to an employee, if he is liable to pay tax in respect of
the following during the financial year :
(i) Gratuity
(ii) Salary received in advance
(iii) Arears of family pension
(iv) Commuted value of pension
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
21
Which Co-operative Societies Act provided for the classification of societies on the basis
of their liabilities into limited and unlimited?
Answer
B. 1912
22
Which section of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 provides that a society can
change its name by means of an amendment to the bye laws?
Answer
C. Section 10
23
According to section 74 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 the Registrar shall
make an order for cancellation of registration of a society under the following
circumstances :
(i) If the liquidator fails to take charge of the liquidation within two months time from
the date of order.
(ii) If an appeal made to the Government confirmed and by the time liquidator has not
been appointed within two months
(iii) When the affairs of the society is wound up
(iv) When the Registrar is satisfied that the final wind up is not possible due to
destruction of records
Which of the above statements is / are correct?
Answer
D. All of these
24
Section 29 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with :
Answer
A. Annual General Body Meeting
25
Membership of a co-operative society is open to the following category of people and
institutions :
(i) An individual
(ii) Any other society
(iii) A local self government
(iv) The Government
(v) A body of persons approved by government
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer
D. All of these
26
Section 28 and Rule 44 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with :
Answer
A. Disqualification of managing committee members
27
Which section of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with Annual General Body
meeting?
Answer
C. Section 29
28
Section 72 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with :
Answer
C. Appointment of liquidator
29
Which section of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with appointment of
Vigilance Officer?
Answer
B. Section 68A
30
Which section of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act 1969 deals with inquiry?
Answer
B. Section 65
31
Within which period from the date of close of the financial year, the accounts of the
cooperative societies shall be audited :
Answer
B. Six Months
32
Who shall approve the Audit Manual of a Co-operative society?
Answer
D. Director of Cooperative Audit
33
The maximum amount of audit fee payable by a cooperative society is :
Answer
C. Rs. 1,00,000
34
Audit fee of Primary Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development Banks is
calculated on :
Answer
A. The aggregate of loans issued and recovered
35
Following classes of societies are exempted from the payment of audit fees :
(i) All farming societies which do not accept deposits and do not grant loans and
advances
(ii) All social welfare societies which do not accept deposits and do not grant loans
(iii) Coir Co-operative societies
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
36
The type of Audit which is not allowed in the cooperative audit is :
Answer
D. Interim Audit
144/2025 9 A
37
In a co-operative society, the Auditor submit the audit report to :
Answer
B. Director of Cooperative Audit
38
The Auditor’s plan of action, specifying the scheme of work to be done is :
Answer
A. Audit Programme
39
A co-operative society is classified into category A, if it secure marks above :
Answer
C. 60 marks
40
The system of arrangement of work in such a way that the work of one person is
automatically checked by another :
Answer
B. Internal Check
41
The spot exchange rate is 1 EUR = 1.16 USD. The one-year forward rate is quoted as
1 EUR = 1.18 USD. What does this forward quote suggest about market expectations?
Answer
C. The Euro is expected to appreciate against the U.S. Dollar
42
Which is the primary function of a financial guarantee?
Answer
D. Ensure that debt holders receive timely interest and principal payments
43
In India which institution handle dematerialisation process :
Answer
D. Both
44
How long do money market instruments take to mature?
Answer
B. One year or less
45
If a 364-day T-Bill, face value Rs. 100, is purchased for Rs 95, its approximate
annualized yield is :
Answer
A. 5.26%
46
The process which transforms a pool of loans like mortgages into tradable securities that
are sold to investors is called :
Answer
B. Securitization
47
To minimize the market impact of selling a large block of 45,00,000 shares, a mutual
fund should use the :
Answer
C. Block deal window
48
Which of these securities is characterized by regular interest payments and the return of
principal upon a specified future date?
Answer
D. Corporate Bond
49
Mr. Sharma purchase one put option on ABC Ltd. with a strike price of Rs. 100 for a
premium of Rs. 10. At expiration, if the stock price is Rs. 70, what is the net profit per
share?
Answer
B. Rs. 20
50
What is the name of the premier stock index in India that is composed of 30
well-established and financially sound companies traded on the Bombay stock exchange :
Answer
C. S and P BSE sensex
51
A company sells goods at a high price in order to create an impression of superior quality
and social status among the public. What kind of Pricing does this represent?
Answer
C. Image pricing
52
(i) It refers to the entire range of products offered by the company
(ii) It helps in meeting the diverse needs of customers
(iii) It helps in increasing the market share and revenue
(iv) It allows better brand positioning
What term in marketing is referred here in the above statements?
Answer
B. Product mix
53
This marketing concept sees marketing as a unified and all- encompassing process and
ensures that every part of the organization works together to provide value to customers
while meeting the business goals. Name the marketing concept :
Answer
A. Holistic marketing concept
54
Which is True about market segmentation?
(i) It helps to formulate suitable marketing mix for a target market
(ii) It is only based on demographics
(iii) It helps to study the nature and degree of competition prevailing in a particular
market
(iv) It is one time process and does not require continuous monitoring and adjustment
Answer
B. (i) and (iii)
55
The process of creating a strategic road map for achieving marketing objectives, which
includes analysing the current market, understanding target audience, setting goals,
and developing specific strategies and tactics to promote products is called :
Answer
C. Market Planning
56
In a product life cycle, the product reaches a stage where the company reduces the sales
promotion so as to take advantage of the increasing consumer demand. Mention the
stage in the product life cycle :
Answer
B. Growth
57
A Company wants to generate interest and enthusiasm among the customers upon its
newly launching product. For that they plan to undergo a social media campaign, send
email newsletters, give advertisements in leading channels, other promotional measures
in various media etc. This is an example of which kind of marketing approach :
Answer
C. Integrated Marketing
58
Which of the following is an example of Sales centered objective?
Answer
B. Enhance the sales revenue by 10 % by the end of this year
59
A Pharmaceutical company fixes the price of a medicine meant for diabetics according to
the government regulations, which clearly specifies the maximum price that can be
charged. Name the pricing strategy adopted by the company :
Answer
A. Administered pricing
60
Identify the activity/activities that are directly associated with Product planning :
(i) Identifying market opportunities and needs of customers
(ii) Developing product strategies and roadmaps
(iii) Maintaining physical infrastructure
(iv) Handling customer inquiries and support
Answer
C. (i) and (ii)
61
In which type of costing production is made by specific order :
Answer
B. Job costing
62
Which cost is considered as product cost?
Answer
A. Variable Cost
63
What is the principal ledger of costing department in which the impersonal accounts are
maintained?
Answer
C. Cost ledger
64
Which of the following is the basic purpose of ABC?
Answer
C. Fundamental cost object
65
State another term for standard cost :
Answer
B. Predetermined cost
66
How can the standard quantity of material be calculated?
Answer
A. actual output * standard quantity
67
Identify the benefit of cost reduction :
Answer
B. Increase in productivity
68
Calculate MCV, if SQ = 200 kgs, AQ = 100 kgs, SP = Rs. 50 and Ap = Rs. 40 :
Answer
C. 6000
69
Which of the following is an example of deferred cost?
Answer
B. Prepaid rent
70
Which cost is considered as aggregate of direct material cost and direct labour cost?
Answer
C. Prime cost
71
An Enterprise Information System (EIS) provides a technology platform that enables
organisations to integrate and coordinate their business processes on a robust
foundation. Identify the statement that does not fall under the list of objectives of EIS :
Answer
B. Identify manual processes
72
A manufacturing company is facing an issue of not being able to provide timely supply of
its products to the customers. Mr. Anil, an IS Auditor of this company identified that the
delay is due to the manual processing of certain processes involved in the company. He
suggested that the company should adopt __________ to overcome the problem.
Answer
C. Business Process Automation
73
A bank shares financial data of its borrowers with third-party without consent of
borrowers. Identify the rule of Sensitive Information and personal Data Rules, 2011 that
bank has violated :
Answer
D. Rule 6
74
Money Laundering is defined as the process by which the proceeds off the crime and the
true ownership of those proceeds are concealed or made opaque so that the proceeds
appear to come from a legitimate source. This Process involves many stages as
mentioned below :
(i) Layering
(ii) Integration
(iii) Placement
Choose the correct sequence :
Answer
D. (iii), (i), (ii)
144/2025 14 A
75
To make a success in the business and to reduce the timing of manual work, the
organization should implement Business Process Automation
Answer
A. Design new policy format
76
An online store follows a process of intimating about whole tracking of the order placed
by the customers through SMS on their registered mobile numbers. This activity is a
perfect example of :
Answer
B. Customer Relationship Management
77
Mr. X works on the Financial and Accounting System of a private firm and maintains
different types of master data in the system. Which of the following master data is not
controlled by the user and depends on the changes recommended by the government
from time to time?
Answer
B. Statutory Master data
78
Choose the incorrect statement from the following statements on Traditional commerce
and e-commerce :
Answer
B. The resource focus of Traditional commerce is on the demand side, whereas
e-commerce focuses on the Supply side
79
Which of the following sections of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with
punishment for cheating by personation by using a computer resource?
Answer
D. Section 66 D
144/2025 15 A
80
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the Core Banking System?
Answer
D. CBS has a non-modular structure capable of being implemented in stages as
per the bank’s requirements
a11 a12
81
Determinant of Matrix A = = :
a21 a22
Answer
C. a11 × a22 − a21 × a12
82
Solution to the matrix equation [[2, 3], [1, 1]][[X], [Y]] = [[4], [0]], where A = [[2, 3], [1, 1]], B = [[4], [0]], X = [[X], [Y]], is:
Answer
A. X = A⁻¹ × B
83
Find the present value of Rs. 1,100 due at the end of one year if the rate of discount is
10% per annum :
Answer
B. Rs. 1,000
84
The cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles. Find the gain
percentage :
Answer
D. 25%
85
Which of the following averages is useful in construction of Index Numbers?
Answer
A. Geometric Mean
86
Compute the variance of a series if it’s Mean is 10 and Standard Deviation is 3 :
Answer
C. 9
87
If the Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation between X and Y is –0.75, covariance
is –15 and Standard Deviation of Y series is 5, what will be the standard deviation of
X series :
Answer
B. 4
88
Which of the following is correct?
(i) bxy = r·σₓ/σᵧ
(ii) byx = r·σᵧ/σₓ
(iii) r = bxy·byx
(iv) r = (bxy·byx)²
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
89
If f(x) = 4x² − 3x + 5, find the value of f(−1):
Answer
B. 12
90
In time series analysis, secular trend shows :
Answer
B. The growth or decline over a long period of time
91
Which of the following best describes the main focus of Behavioral Finance?
Answer
B. Understanding how psychological factors affect financial decisions
92
The Expected Utility Theory assumes that investors :
Answer
C. Are rational and maximize expected satisfaction
93
The Capital Asset Pricing Model
Answer
B. Systematic risk measured by beta
94
According to Prospect Theory, investors evaluate outcomes based on :
Answer
B. Changes relative to a reference point
95
Mental Accounting refers to :
Answer
B. The cognitive process of categorizing money into separate accounts
96
Which of the following statements about Noise Traders is TRUE?
Answer
C. Their irrational trades may cause price deviations from fundamentals
97
Overconfidence bias in investors most directly leads to :
Answer
B. Under estimation of risk and excessive trading
98
Which of the following behavioral anomalies directly contradicts the Efficient Market
Hypothesis (EMH)?
Answer
C. Momentum and reversal effects
99
In the context of group behavior, herding occurs when :
Answer
B. Individuals mimic the actions of others regardless of their own information
100
During periods of market volatility, behavioral finance suggests that effective
investment management involves :
Answer
B. Recognizing cognitive biases and maintaining disciplined strategies
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.