| Post Name | Assistant Geologist - Mining and Geology |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 026/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 029/2024 |
| Date of Test | 20 March 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Streams which flow in the opposite direction to the main stream are described as
Answer
A. Obsequent streams
2
Which of the following aeolian processes is the most important for the formation of yardangs ?
Answer
D. Abration
3
The Western Ghats in Kerala are an example of which type of landform ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
4
Which of the following sources are most likely to have low Dissolved Oxygen (DO) levels ? i. Stagnent pond ii. Rapidly flowing water iii. Deep underground well iv. Eutrophic lake Choose the correct appropriate answer.
Answer
A. i, iii and iv only
5
Which soil horizon is known as the "zone of leaching" where minerals are washed out ?
Answer
B. A-horizon
6
Which one of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Strength of a rock increases with increase in confining pressure. ii. Strength of a rock decreases with increase in temperature. iii. Strength of a rock increases with increase in strain. iv. Strength of a rock increases with increase in pore water pressure.
Answer
A. i and ii only
7
Which type of rotational symmetry is not allowed in crystal structure ?
Answer
C. 5-fold
8
Which Bravais lattice belongs to the highest symmetry class ?
Answer
B. Face-centred cube
9
Interference colour of a mineral section is maximum in the plane
Answer
A. Perpendicular to the optic axis
10
The important factor affecting the atomic substitution is
Answer
Question Cancelled
11
The myrmekite structure is an inter growth between
Answer
C. Plagioclase and vermicular quartz
12
Which of the following directional structures are best for the study of a turbidite basin ?
Answer
B. Flute marks
13
A spotted appearance in metamorphic rocks that's caused by the formation of large crystals called porphyroblasts
Answer
A. Maculose structure
14
Palingenesis is a process shown to start at a temperature of about
Answer
A. 1500°C
15
Which one of the following is not a set of polymorphous mineral ?
Answer
C. Graphite, anthracite, diamond
16
Which of the following sedimentary structure cannot be identified in vertical sections ?
Answer
D. Skip marks
17
Which of the metamorphic facies is characterized by the pyrope rich garnet + omphacite assemblage ?
Answer
A. Eclogite facies
18
The correct pair of naturally occurring fossil isotope of Uranium is
Answer
C. and
19
Quartz can be optically easily distinguished from nepheline based on
Answer
D. Optic sign
20
An igneous texture showing mesh-work of feldspar laths with gaps filled by glass is known as
Answer
B. Intersertal
21
What are the major products of the coalification process ?
Answer
C. Coal-bed methane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and water
22
How is the ground energized in a pure Electromagnetic method of geophysical exploration ?
Answer
C. By an alternating current flowing in a transmitter coil
23
What is the primary purpose of Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) in geological studies ?
Answer
B. To identify concealed mineral bodies and map stratigraphy
24
Which of the following correctly describes the adsorption of Coal Bed Methane (CBM) in coal ?
Answer
D. CBM is adsorbed as molecules on the organic surface of the coal
25
Which of the given statement is true for aluminous laterite ?
Answer
B. Laterite with : ratio less than one and : ratio less than 1.33
26
What is the primary process responsible for salt formation in sabkhas ?
Answer
A. Capillary evaporation from a saline water table
27
Refractory clay exhibits incipient melting at temperatures above 1580°C due to the presence of
Answer
B. Elevated aluminum oxide ( ) content
28
In the ore dressing process, the property of fluorescence is utilized for which of the following mineral(s) ? i. Feldspar ii. Uranium minerals iii. Scheelite
Answer
C. Only ii and iii
29
Complex gas hydrates are more stable than simple methane hydrate because they contain additional guest molecules such as
Answer
B. Isobutane, propane and cyclopentane
30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding skarn deposits ?
Answer
A. Skarn is an association of calcium bearing iron rich silicate
31
The term "taconite" is applied to which of the following statements ?
Answer
C. Banded Iron Formation dominated magnetite, iron silicates and chert
32
The process of elutriation is associated with the formation of
Answer
D. Stream and Beach placers
33
Which of the following statements are true for phosphorites ? i. Phosphate rich sedimentary rock. ii. Deposit containing more than 15 to 20% . iii. Forms on continental shelf environment. iv. Product of sub marine volcanism.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii only
34
Which are the manganese minerals that are deposited as concentric layers in a manganese nodule ?
Answer
D. Pyrolusite and birnesite
35
Which of the following metal ores is not typically associated with ultramafic rocks ?
Answer
C. Copper
36
A fertile pegmatite melt is characterized by
Answer
B. High amounts of volatiles and incompatible elements
37
In mineralogic zoning of an ideal VMS ore, which mineral assemblage is found in the massive ore body ?
Answer
A. Pyrite-Chalcopyrite
38
The disseminated graphite in the Khondalite rocks of Kerala is primarily arranged along which geological structure ?
Answer
C. Foliation planes
39
Which of the following conditions are referred to as Sedimentary- Exhalative (SEDEX) type ore deposits ? i. Proximal position to submarine volcanoes. ii. More distal positions where only sparse ash layers in the sedimentary column point to synchronous volcanism. iii. Purely sedimentary settings.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
40
What is a key characteristic of a Metallogenetic Province ?
Answer
A. It includes ore deposits formed in a major geotectonic unit during one geodynamic cycle
41
You are provided with the following information from three different sources about a geological outcrop: Source 1 :A stratigraphic column shows a sequence of layers from bottom to top : sandstone, shale, limestone and basalt. Source 2 : Radiometric dating indicates the basalt layer is 50 million years old, while the limestone below it is 60 million years old. Source 3 : Fossil evidence from the shale layer matches organisms that lived approximately 65 million years ago. Based on these sources, which of the following statements is most accurate ?
Answer
B. The principle of superposition suggests the sandstone is the oldest layer
42
What is a map ?
Answer
B. A two dimensional diagram that represents the Earth or part of Earth's surface
43
An unconformity is
Answer
A. A surface of erosion or non-deposition or both as detected in a sequence of rock
44
The type of joint commonly observed in granitic rocks, where three sets of joints occur at mutually right angles one horizontal and two vertical is called
Answer
C. Mural joint
45
The Warkalli Formation, which is distributed along the coastal regions of Kanhangad, Nileswaram, Nadayara and Varkala in Kerala characterized by carbonaceous shale, sandstone and thin seams of lignite. This formation is a part of Kerala's
Answer
B. Tertiary sedimentary sequence
46
Stalactites and stalagmites are formed due to which of the following processes ?
Answer
C. Groundwater deposition in caves through precipitation from dripping water rich in dissolved calcium carbonate
47
The quantity of water that a unit volume of aquifer drains by gravity is known as
Answer
D. Specific yield
48
Which of the following statements correctly describe Darcy's Law ?
Answer
D. All of the above
49
The concept of sea floor spreading was proposed by
Answer
A. Harry H. Hess
50
While most divergent boundaries occur at mid-oceanic ridges, some are found within continents. Which of the following is an example of a continental divergent boundary ?
Answer
B. Great Rift Valley of East Africa, Red Sea and Dead Sea
51
The critical diameter of an explosive is defined as the diameter below which it
Answer
D. deflagrates
52
Which of the following explosive is more oxygen balanced ?
Answer
C. Ammonium Nitrate [ ]
53
Match the following for a drilling system. Component Function P. Drill 1. Utilization of energy in fragmenting rock Q. Drill rod 2. Reduction of energy loss due to regrinding R. Drill bit 3. Conversion of original form of energy into mechanical energy S. Flushing medium 4. Transmission of energy from prime mover to applicator
Answer
C. P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
54
Low shock and high gas pressure explosive is generally used for blasting of
Answer
B. Soft and jointed rock mass
55
Identify the initiation sequence which is not possible for surface blasting.
Answer
A. Detonating fuse → Nonel→Electronic detonator
56
20 plain detonators in series, each of 2Ω resistance, are fired by a DC exploder supplying a current of 1.25A. If 250 mJ energy is spent to fire the detonators, the time required in millisecond after detonator initiation is
Answer
A. 4
57
The backsight reading on a bench mark of RL 100.0 m is 1.45 m. If the inverse staff reading on a foresight is 2.23m, the RL of the staff station in m is
Answer
B. 103.68
58
GPS atomic clocks run faster due to the reduced gravitational pull (g/4) but slower due to the high rotational speed of the satellite. Considering these effects, compared to clocks on earth GPS atomic clocks are
Answer
A. faster by 38.5 μs
59
The principle used for measuring distances electronically is that the difference in phase between the transmitted and received waves represents
Answer
A. Only a fraction of wavelength
60
A total station can measure
Answer
D. Horizontal and vertical angles and distances
61
Theory of probability is applied to
Answer
A. Accidental errors only
62
In a uniaxial compressive strength test, a cylindrical rock sample of diameter 50 mm fails at an angle of 60° as shown in the figure. If the peak load at failure is 120 kN, the normal and shear stresses on failure plane respectively, in MPa are ___________ and ______________.
Answer
A. 15.28 and 26.46
63
Coal pillar strength is represented by S = s₁h^αw^β, where s₁ = in-situ strength of the pillar, h = mining height and w = pillar width. Two bord-and-pillar panels are developed in similar geological conditions at depths D₁ and D₂ with mining heights h₁ and h₂ respectively. If the gallery width and pillar width in both panels remain the same, find the ratio of pillar safety factors SF₁/SF₂.
Answer
D. (h₁/h₂)^α × D₂/D₁
64
A series of tri-axial compression tests conducted on sandstone samples reveal the following relationship between major and minor principal stresses σ₁ = 50 + 3σ₃ [stresses are in MPa]. The cohesion in MPa and angle of internal friction in degrees of sandstone respectively are
Answer
A. 14.43, 30.0
65
Find the average ore sampling grade from one channel sampling results : Sample1-25 cm @ 3.2% Sample2-45 cm @ 2.2% Sample3-10 cm @ 3.1% Mining stopping width is 1m, cut-off grade is 2%
Answer
A. 2.625%
66
Which of the following statement is incorrect for stripping ratio ?
Answer
C. Increasing SR method produces low cash-flow in the initial period and covers the risk
67
Which is not acceptable as per DGMS guideline for height and width of haul road ?
Answer
D. Where any road existing above level of surrounding area it shall be provided with strong parapet wall/embankment having dimensions of width at top- not less than 0.5 m, width at bottom-not less than 2m, the height more than diameter of tyre of largest vehicle plying on road
68
In an underground coal mine, the output from the panel is 400 tonnes/day, having 25 days of working in a month where incubation period of coal is 6 months. If recovery from the panel is 80% and pillar size is 30m × 30m, height of 3m, specific gravity of coal of 1.4. Find out the number of pillars in the panel.
Answer
B. 19
69
What is the permissible peak particle velocity as per the DGMS Cir. (Tech.)7/1997 for the Industrial buildings (RCC and framed structures) belonging to owners at frequency higher than 25 Hz ?
Answer
D. 50mm/sec.
70
Which of the following statement is incorrect ? i. In very thin to thin deposits (up to 2 m thickness) in order to provide working space for the man and machines, floor stripping in the country rocks becomes essential. ii. In medium thick deposits, 5 m is the maximum length of prop, which can be fitted, if need arise. iii. Steeply dipping thick deposits can be mined along dip. iv. For very thick deposits ore mining from hanging wall towards footwall becomes essential.
Answer
C. Only iii
71
Select the option that correctly matches the equipment to the action processes. Equipment Action I Process P. Dragline 1. Reaming Q. Bucket wheel excavator 2. Key cut R. Tunnel boring machine 3. Pulsating impact S. Hydraulic hammer 4. Terracing
Answer
A. P–2, Q–4, R–1, S–3
72
Which pump has single helical rotor, and can be used at coal face for pumping water having coal particles of various sizes ?
Answer
A. Roto pump
73
How corrosion of a rope can be reduced ?
Answer
C. By through lubrication and galvanized wire
74
Match the following Component Function P. Drill 1. Utilization of energy in fragmentation of rock Q. Drill rod 2. Reduction of energy loss due to regrinding R. Drill bit 3. Conversation of original form of energy into mechanical energy S. Flushing 4. Transmission of energy from prime mover to applicator
Answer
C. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
75
Side Dump Loader (SDL) and Load Haul Dumper (LHD) are
Answer
B. Bucket loaders
76
A district of a mine is ventilated by 30 m³/sec quantity of air and the water gauge across the district is 25 mm. If the quantity has to be reduced to 20 m³/sec by installing a regulator in the return of the district, what will be the resistance of the regulator?
Answer
C. 20/576 kµ
77
Which of the following statement/statements is correct for ventilation standards ? i. in every ventilating district, not less than six cubic meters per minute of air per person employed in the district on the largest shift or not less than 2.5 cubic meters per minute of air per tonne of daily output, whichever is larger, passes along the last ventilation connection in the district which means the in-bye most gallery in the district along which the air passes; ii. at every place in the mine where persons are required to work or pass, the air does not contain less than 18 percent of oxygen or more than 0.5 percent of carbon dioxide or any noxious gas in quantity likely to affect the health of any person; iii. the percentage of inflammable gas does not exceed 1.25 in the general body of the return air of any ventilating district and 0.75 in any place in the mine; iv. the wet bulb temperature in any working place does not exceed 33.5 degrees centigrade, and where the wet bulb temperature exceeds 30.5 degrees centigrade, arrangements are made to ventilate the same with a current of air moving at a speed of not less than one meter per second
Answer
B. Only i and iv
78
As per CMR-2017, the maximum exposure limit for respirable coal dust concentration in Indian mines is
Answer
A. where free silica present is less than 5%
79
The average temperature in upcast and downcast shaft in a mine are 40 degree C and 30 degree C respectively. The shafts are 300 m deep. What will be the motive column of air (downcast shaft air) causing natural ventilation ?
Answer
B. 9.58 m
80
Which is incorrect statement for the measurement of the air velocity ?
Answer
D. Pitot tube : is a device which can be used to measure the static pressure only
81
Sirocco fan is a type of
Answer
C. Centrifugal fan
82
Which of the following mine gases is most toxic to human health ?
Answer
A. Carbon monoxide (CO)
83
Which is the most acceptable theory of coal spontaneous combustion ?
Answer
B. Coal-oxygen complex theory
84
In firedamp explosion, the stoichiometric concentration of is ________ and maximum explosion pressure develops at about _______________ of in air.
Answer
D. 9.5%, 10%
85
Which of the following reserve estimation methods is based on assigning weighted averages to sample values depending on their location and distance ?
Answer
B. Geostatistical method
86
The mineral resource for which the tonnage, grade and mineral content can be estimated with a reasonable level of confidence is called
Answer
B. Indicated mineral resource
87
Ore grade for which revenue earned from the recoverable reserve equals the cost of mining, treatment and marketing is known as
Answer
C. Break-even grade
88
Which one of the following does not belong to the direct operating cost of a mine ?
Answer
A. Administrative cost
89
In the Kriging interpolation technique, the weights assigned to each sample are determined based on
Answer
B. Variogram model and spatial correlation of data
90
Which of the following best describes Net Present Value (NPV) in mine valuation ?
Answer
A. The difference between present value of cash inflows and outflows
91
Which factors are considered for the mine planning ?
Answer
D. All the above factors
92
The stages involved in planning of a new mine follows the order.
Answer
A. Exploration, strategy report preparation, feasibility report preparation, detailed project report preparation
93
In coal mines, the optimal location of the main shaft to achieve maximum operational advantage is
Answer
D. At the centre of coal deposit
94
What does mine life refer to ?
Answer
B. Total duration of mineral extraction from the mine
95
Which main factor is taken into account for ventilation planning of a new underground coal mine ?
Answer
B. Percentage of inflammable gas
96
What is the key factor influencing the size of pillars in underground coal mines ?
Answer
D. Coal seam depth and gallery width
97
Which Section of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, stipulates the grant of composite licence through auction for minerals ?
Answer
C. Section 11
98
Which of the following provisions is true regarding the environmental clearance of mining projects as per the Mineral Concession Rules ?
Answer
C. Environmental clearance is mandatory for all mining activities, regardless of scale
99
As per the Coal Mines Regulations, 2017, the degree of gassiness of coal seams is decided based on the
Answer
C. Both percentage of inflammable gas in general body of air and rate of inflammable gas emission per tonne of coal production
100
In an underground correlation survey by the Weisbach triangle (figure below), the following data are obtained. AB = 3.50 m, BC = 2.75 m, CA = 6.20 m, ∠ACD = 179°14′33″, ∠BCD = 179°10′17″ and bearing of AB = 115°23′49″. The bearing of traverse CD is
Answer
B. 114°41’43.14”
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