| Post Name | Assistant Insurance Medical officer, Assistant Surgeon/ Casualty Medical Officer |
|---|---|
| Department | Insurance Medical Services, Health Services |
| Question Paper Code | 048/2024 |
| Category Code | 453/2023, 494/2023, 536/2023 |
| Date of Test | 29 April 2024 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which among the following regarding Angioedema is true ?
Answer
C. Auto antibodies are present to Ig E in around 45% patients
2
Which among the following is false regarding Odollam Poisoning ?
Answer
C. In acute poisoning, there is hypokalemia
3
The deformity gets corrected by remodelling of the bone as the child attains skeletal
maturity.
Answer
B. 1 and 3 are correct
4
Can produce impairment of sensations of the medial one and a half fingers.
Answer
A. All the above statements are correct
5
Which of the following primary genetic disorders is not associated with Inflammatory
Bowel disease (IBd) ?
Answer
D. Noonan syndrome
6
Which of the following is not a risk factor for Reactivation of pulmonary Tuberculosis ?
Answer
B. Asbestosis and Interstitial lung disease
7
Which among the following are major manifestations of severe Falciparum malaria ?
Answer
A. Cerebral malaria
8
Which is not true regarding Hemophilia ?
Answer
B. One unit of recombinant factor VIII
9
Which of the following organisms are not associated with post operative prosthetic
valve endocarditis ?
Answer
D. HACEK organisms
10
Which among the following is not a test suggested for work up for anaemia ?
Answer
C. Urine porphyrins
11
Which among the following drug is used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s dementia ?
Answer
D. donepezil
12
Which of the following is not seen in advanced heart failure ?
Answer
B. Hypernatremia
13
In the Get up and go test to assess gait and balance, normal performance takes less
than
Answer
A. 12 seconds
14
Which of the following is seen in pre renal acute kidney injury ?
Answer
C. High urea: creatinine ratio
15
BOdE index is used in predicting prognosis of which among the following ?
Answer
C. COPd
16
Hypercalcemia is seen in all the following except
Answer
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
17
In a diabetic patient with heart failure which among the following drug will be preferred ?
Answer
B. SGlT2 inhibitor
18
A 64 year old male presented with ascites. Ascitic fluid study showed albumin of
1.5g. His serum albumin is 3 gm. Which among the following is the most likely cause
of ascites in this patient ?
Answer
A. Cirrhosis
19
In a 30 year old pregnant lady with SlE which among the following autoantibody you
will test ?
Answer
D. Anti Ro
20
during the evaluation of a patient with anaemia investigations showed elevated
bilirubin, elevated ldH, elevated ferritin, low platelet count and normal reticulocyte
count. What is the likely cause of anaemia ?
Answer
C. Deficiency of B12
21
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is diagnosed by the following investigations
except
Answer
C. Antithrombin
22
In monozygotic placentation conjoined twins are caused by incomplete division
occuring after _________ days of fertilization.
Answer
C. 13 days
23
Proteinuria in pregnancy is defined as
Answer
B. Protein creatinine ratio ≥ 0.3
24
The current WHO and FIGO recommendation for the active management of third
stage of labour is
Answer
B. Intramuscular injection of 10 U of oxytoxin within one minute of delivery of the baby
25
The most common position in breech presentation is
Answer
B. left sacroanterior
26
Which one is a contraindication for vacuum extraction in the following list ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
27
Name the oxytoxin antagonist which is safe and effective as a tocolytic agent.
Answer
C. Atosiban
28
The fibrinous band of adhesions in the perihepatic space as seen during laproscopy
in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease is suggestive of
Answer
C. Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
29
Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted disease. Following statements are
true about this organism except
Answer
C. It’s ingress to the vagina is favoured by low pH
30
A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea. Her FSH and lH
levels were normal. She failed to get withdrawl bleeding with progestins as well as
oestrogen and progestin combination. This is suggestive of
Answer
B. Asherman syndrome
31
Progestogens are the main hormones used in abnormal uterine bleeding. The
progestogen induces the enzyme __________ and causes endometrial atrophy.
Answer
B. Oestradiol 17β dehydrogenase
32
In invitro fertilization the test which is useful in selecting the best sperm for fertilization is
Answer
D. Hypo-osmotic swelling test
33
A reliable, sensitive and cost effective alternative to pap smear in low resource
settings is
Answer
D. Visual inspection of acetowhite areas
34
Therapeutic indications for hysteroscopy includes all except
Answer
D. Large intramural fibroid
35
All are seen in chronic calcific pancreatitis except
Answer
C. Hypercalcemia
36
Subdural hematoma most commonly result from
Answer
C. Injury to cortical bridging veins
37
Features of extradural hemorrhage include all except
Answer
A. Severe hypotension
38
After three weeks of duration, pancreatic pseudocyst 5 cm in size should be managed
by which method ?
Answer
D. Ultra sonogram and follow up
39
most common cause of Ogilvie’s syndrome
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
Which of the following scenario is considered a contraindication in the use of tamoxifen ?
Answer
B. A history of deep vein thrombosis, transient ischemic attack
41
A bed ridden patient post surgery developed low grade fever, pain on leg and pedal
edema on day 5th POd. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
Answer
B. deep vein thrombosis
42
main disability following Classical radical neck dissection is due to paralysis of which
muscle ?
Answer
C. Trapezius
43
Which patient has better prognosis in breast cancer ?
Answer
A. luminal A
44
Treatment of posterior flail segment is
Answer
C. No treatment is required
45
The following are features of thromboangiitis obliterans except
Answer
D. Polymorphs and giant cells are abscent on histopathology
46
myxomatous degeneration occurs only in which lipoma ?
Answer
A. Retroperitonial
47
Following are true for verrucous carcinoma except
Answer
B. Poorly differentiated carcinoma
48
The following are true for venous ulcer formation except
Answer
D. Haem deposition
49
What is the analysis to be done to compare whether there is a significant difference
in the mean hemoglobin measurement between boys (n = 100) and an equal number
of girls studying in a higher secondary school ?
Answer
A. z-test
50
In a positively skewed frequency distribution the following is true
Answer
B. mean > median > mode
51
The analysis to be done for determining whether there is an association between
smoking and lung cancer in a case control study is
Answer
C. Chi-square test
52
The following are primary levels of prevention, except
Answer
B. Screening for tuberculosis
53
Unemployment due to loss of foot in an accident is
Answer
D. Handicap
54
Children Act for prevention and control of juvenile delinquency is
Answer
C. Social defense
55
Which of the following are defense mechanisms to deal with problems, difficulties or
failures ?
i. Projection
ii. dissolution
iii. displacement
iv. Compensation
Answer
D. i, iii, iv
56
In a study to assess the association between smoking and lung cancer, 10,000
smokers and an equal number of non-smokers were followed up for 5 years. Among
smokers 100 developed lung cancer and among non-smokers 10 developed lung
cancer. To what extend can the disease under study be attributed to the exposure ?
Answer
B. 90
57
Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer
A. In hookworm infection, man is the reservoir and contaminated soil the source of
infection
58
A man came to the hospital with complaints of a stray cat scratch over left forearm.
On examination, there was oozing of blood. He gave a history of completed anti-rabies
vaccination 3 years back. What is the recommended post-exposure management ?
Answer
D. Intra dermal rabies vaccination on 0, 3rd day without rabies immunoglobulin
59
Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer
A. Under integrated disease surveillance project, syndromic diagnosis is made on the
basis of clinical pattern by paramedical personnel
60
Which of the following is cyclo-developmental transmission ?
Answer
B. Filarial parasite in Culex mosquito
61
Which of the following is true regarding indicators of Acute Flaccid Paralysis
Answer
D. At least 80% of expected routine AFP surveillance report should be received on
time
62
The following is true, except
Answer
D. Well should be located 15 feet away from any likely source of contamination
63
The radiological features in Chest X-ray of Hyaline membrane disease (Respiratory
distress Syndrome of Prematurity) are all except
Answer
C. Hyperinflation
64
Which is not a usual cause of neonatal jaundice appearing within 24 hours ?
Answer
D. Neonatal sepsis
65
Which worm infestation in children can result in rectal prolapse ?
Answer
B. Whip worm
66
Regarding Trisomy 21
Answer
D. own syndrome), which statement is incorrect ?
67
microcephaly is not commonly associated with
Answer
C. Congenital Hypothyroidism
68
The pathological lesion associated with spastic diplegia is
Answer
B. Periventricular leukomalacia
69
Oligo articular Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis is a type of Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
in which
Answer
B. 4 or less number of joints involved over a period of 6 months
70
The treatment of Kawasaki disease include all except
Answer
D. Antibiotics
71
Regarding 21-Hydroxylase deficiency (the commonest cause of congenital adrenal
hyperplasia), all are true except
Answer
D. It can present with hypertension
72
The earliest post conceptional age at which the neural tube fuses completely is
Answer
A. 4 weeks
73
Which infection is more common in Galactosaemia ?
Answer
A. Escherichia Coli
74
One of the criteria in the definition of Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) in children
aged 6 months to 59 months according to WHO is
Answer
C. Weight for Height less than – 3 (minus 3) Standard deviation
75
Pugilistic attitude is seen in
Answer
B. Flame burns
76
Grievous hurt is defined in Indian Penal Code
Answer
A. S. 320
77
In medical negligence, the death of a person by any Rash or Negligent Act comes
under which Section of Indian Penal Code ?
Answer
C. S. 304 A
78
Stiffening of muscles that occur in a dead body after the primary flaccidity has
disappeared is
Answer
D. Rigor mortis
79
Blood collected for chemical analysis is preserved in
Answer
A. Sodium fluoride
80
Predominant Contre-coup cerebral injuries in traumatic brain injury suggests
Answer
C. Acceleration – deceleration injuries
81
Regarding gun stalk deformity of the humerus in children
1. It is a complication of displaced lateral condyle fracture.
2. It is produced by posterior tilt, medial tilt and internal rotation of the distal fragment
in Supracondylar fractures.
3. The deformity gets corrected by remodelling of the bone as the child attains skeletal
maturity.
Answer
D. 2 alone is correct
82
Tuberculosis of the thoracic spine can produce
1. A paraspinal abscess on the posterior thoracic wall which may cross the
mid-line.
2. A parasternal abscess.
3. A knuckle deformity.
Answer
C. 2 and 3 are correct
83
Compound palmar ganglion
1. Can produce carpal tunnel syndrome.
2. Can produce rupture of the long flexor tendons.
3. Can occur in rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Can produce impairment of sensations of the medial one and a half fingers.
Answer
B. All except 4 are correct
84
A healthy 70 year old male with osteoarthritis of the hip sustains an intracapsular
fracture of neck of femur is ideally treated by
Answer
D. Total hip replacement
85
A 35 year old male presents to the ENT OPd with complaints of recurrent episodes
of sudden onset vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, left ear fullness and
a hissing type of tinnitus. On examination, there was nystagmus with fast component
towards the right side. Rinne’s test was positive and Weber was lateralised to right
ear. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding his disease ?
I. Carharts notch is a characteristic feature in the pure tone audiogram.
II. Schwartz sign is usually present in the tympanic membrane during active phase of
the disease.
III. Summating potential to Action potential ratio in Electrocochleography will be more
than 30%.
IV. Endolymphatic sac decompression can be done if the vertigo is disabling and
hearing needs to be preserved.
Answer
C. III and IV only
86
Which of the following statements regarding epistaxis is untrue ?
Answer
A. Woodruff’s plexus appear to originate from the posterior wall of nasopharynx and is
arterial in origin
87
A tracheostomised patient with Portex cuffed tracheostomy tube, in the ward
developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. What will be the best next step
for the management ?
Answer
D. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube
88
All of the following statements are false except
Answer
C. Irwin Moore’s sign is seen in chronic fibroid type of tonsillitis
89
Punctate sub capsular cataract in children seen in
Answer
A. down Syndrome
90
The common Glaucomatous visual field defects are all except
Answer
A. Central scotoma
91
Central serous choroidopathy :- all are true except
Answer
D. Visual acuity is correctable by use of concave lens
92
Quadrantic hemonymous visual field defect seen in
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
A 20 year old girl presented to the Skin OPd with the complaints of fever and rash
of 2 days duration. On examination she was found to have multiple vesicles on
an erythematous base mainly distributed over the trunk and proximal extremities.
Her oral examination revealed erosions. Tzanck smear from the vesicle revealed
multinucleated giant cells. On enquiring further, she gave a history of similar
complaints in her roommate 2 weeks back. The drug of choice in this condition is
Answer
C. Valacyclovir
94
A 40 year old man presented with multiple painful nodules associated with fever
since 1 month. The nodules used to subside in 2-3 days following which he used to
develop fresh crops of similar lesions. Each episode was associated with a spike
of fever. He also complained of arthralgia and redness of eyes. He was started on
mB mdT for hypopigmented lesions 2 months back. How would you approach this
patient ?
Answer
B. Continue mdT. Start the patient on thalidomide
95
All of the following statements are true about pemphigus vulgaris except
Answer
C. Direct immunofluorescence shows linear deposits of IgG and C3 along the
dermoepidermal junction
96
A 40 year old man presents with intensely pruritic, flat topped, violaceous papules
and plaques on the flexor aspect of upper limbs and trunk since 3 weeks. On
examination he is found to have white plaque in a lacy pattern on his buccal mucosa.
The dermatologist in charge orders for a skin biopsy for histopathological examination.
The biopsy is most likely to show –
Answer
A. Civatte bodies
97
A nine year old boy was brought for evaluation of abdominal pain of six months
duration. Repeated physical examinations and extensive investigations did not reveal
a definite diagnosis. Mother reported that the child throws out tantrums in the morning
hours to avoid going to school. The child confided to the doctor that he is very fearful
about any accidents that might happen to his mother. The diagnostic possibility is
Answer
D. Separation Anxiety disorder
98
Which among the following is the most defining feature of Major Depressive Disorder ?
Answer
A. Anhedonia
99
A twenty year old student was brought with academic decline and social withdrawal.
He expressed suspicions that he is being watched by electronic devices hidden
in his house and classroom. He claimed he can hear the conversation of other
people commenting on his intentions and discussions of his activities. He has been
experiencing these difficulties for the past 9 months. He is most probably suffering
from
Answer
C. Schizophrenia
100
Advance directive in mental health care means
Answer
B. Right of a person to specify the way he/she wishes to be cared for and treated for a
mental illness
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