| Post Name | Assistant Manager Boiler Operation - Travancore Titanium Products Limited |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 002/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 593/2024 |
| Date of Test | 6 January 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
An ideal fluid is
Answer
B. Both incompressible and non-viscous
2
Which one of the following is the correct dimension of surface tension?
Answer
D. J/m²
3
How are the coefficient of velocity (Cv), discharge coefficient (Cd) and contraction coefficient of an orifice (Cc) related?
Answer
D. C_d = C_c × C_v
4
Which property of the fluid accounts for the major losses in pipes?
Answer
C. Viscosity
5
The head loss at the entrance of the pipe is that at it's exit
Answer
C. half
6
An air vessel in a reciprocating pump is used
Answer
B. to obtain a continuous supply of water at a uniform rate
7
The purpose of multistaging in centrifugal pumps is
Answer
A. for high head
8
Which among the following is an important parameter to avoid cavitation?
Answer
D. Height of draft tube
9
Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is described as the ratio between the total quantity of water over the runner blades to the total quantity of water supplied to the turbine?
Answer
A. Volumetric efficiency
10
The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is given by which expression, where m is the jet ratio m = D/d?
Answer
D. 15 + m/2
11
(i) Entropy is a measure of disorder or randomness of a system. (ii) Disorder in a system always decreases during a spontaneous process
Answer
C. (i) is true but (ii) is false
12
Kelvin-Plank's law deals with
Answer
C. Conservation of heat in to work
13
(i) Carnot cycle consist of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes. (ii) Heat transfer occurs during adiabatic processes
Answer
C. (i) is true but (ii) is false
14
Diesel cycle typically operates at higher compression ratio than Otto cycle because
Answer
D. All of the above
15
The specific heat ratio g affects Otto cycle efficiency because
Answer
A. It determines temperature rise during adiabatic compression
16
The calorific value of fuel mainly depends on
Answer
B. Carbon and Hydrogen content
17
If the condenser pressure is reduced while boiler temperature remains constant, the cycle efficiency
Answer
D. Increases
18
Find turbine work, if heat input = 1150 kJ/kg, compressor work = 370 kJ/kg, efficiency = 38%
Answer
C. 807 kJ/kg
19
(i) Bleeding of stream from a turbine increases the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle. (ii) Bleeding reduces the amount of heat supplied in the boiler to raise feed water temperature.
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii) are true and (ii) is the correct explanation of (i)
20
(i) Nozzle governing is more efficient than throttle governing for impulse turbine. (ii) Throttle governing reduces steam pressure for entering nozzles, causing throttling losses.
Answer
A. Both (i) and (ii) are true and (ii) is the correct explanation of (i)
21
In a stress strain curve, the secant modulus is represented by which of the following?
Answer
B. The slope of the line connecting origin and design stress on the curve
22
The possible value of Poisson's ration ( m) lies between
Answer
A. -1 to 0.5
23
If sx and sy be two unequal like principal stresses, what is the diameter of the Mohr's circle?
Answer
D. sx - sy
24
If a trapezium has an upper side of 3 m and lower base of 9 m and a height of 12 m, what is the distance from the upper side to centroid?
Answer
A. 7 m
25
A simply supported beam with a length of L has a uniformly distributed load W per unit length. What is the expression for the maximum bending moment?
Answer
C. (Wl2)/8
26
In a binary alloy system, the eutectic point is,
Answer
A. The point at which the liquid solution of fixed composition solidifies at constant temperature forms a mixture of two or more solid phases without an intermediate pasty stage
27
Which alloying element is used most by percentage in producing maraging steel?
Answer
B. Nickel
28
Which among the following thermosetting plastic have the highest softening point temperature?
Answer
C. PTFE
29
What is the chromium content percentage for high speed tool steel?
Answer
B. 4%
30
Diffusion elements in cyaniding process are
Answer
A. Carbon + Nitrogen
31
Which of the following statement is/are correct about First Angle Projection? (i) Top view is always drawn above XY - line (ii) Distance of top view from XY-line is equal to the distance of the object from vertical plane (iii) Top view is always drawn below XY-line
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
32
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Welded and riveted joints? (i) Single welded V-joint is less reliable than square butt joint (ii) Welded assemblies are tight and leak proof as compared with riveted assemblies (iii) Welding results in thermal distortion of the parts, thereby inducing residual stresses.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
33
For maximum power transmitted the Centrifugal tension in a belt is equal to
Answer
C. 1/3rd of maximum tension in the belt
34
Size of a gear is usually specified by
Answer
B. Pitch circle diameter
35
When a right circular cone is cut by a section plane inclined to the axis of cone and cutting all the generators, the resulting conic section is called
Answer
C. Ellipse
36
Which of the following statement is/are correct about TIG welding? (i) For TIG welding of nonferrous alloys, an ac power source is most suitable (ii) For TIG welding of ferrous alloys, reverse polarity dc power source is better (iii) In TIG welding non consumable Tungsten electrode is used
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
37
Which of the following statement related to turning is/are correct? (i) Turning in lathe produces a cone-shaped or cylindrical surface (ii) The finish turning operation requires low cutting speed, small feed and a very small depth of cut to generate a smooth surface (iii) Taper turning by setting over the tailstock method is suitable for turning small taper on long jobs.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
38
Which of the following statement related to milling is/are correct? (i) In upmilling cutter rotates in a direction opposite to that in which work is fed (ii) The cutting forces in upmilling are generally directed upwards (iii) The chip thickness in upmilling is zero at the start of the cut and maximum at the end
Answer
D. Only (i) and (ii)
39
Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to fuse properly result into a casting defect known as
Answer
A. Cold shut
40
Consider the following statements : The strength of a single point cutting tool depends upon. (i) Rake angle (ii) Clearance angle (iii) Lip angle Which of the following statements are correct?
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
41
When the temperature of intake air is lowered in I.C. engine, the efficiency?
Answer
A. Increases
42
Knocking tendency in a SI engine reduces with increasing
Answer
C. Engine Speed
43
The ignition quality of a diesel fuel is expressed by
Answer
C. Cetane number
44
For heating feed water, an economiser takes heat from
Answer
D. Flue gas
45
Which among the following referred to a steam boiler is a boiler mounting?
Answer
C. Water level indicator
46
1 ton of refrigeration implies heat transfer at the rate of
Answer
D. Both (a) and (b)
47
What is the COP of Carnot heat pump that operates between -3 °C and 27°C
Answer
D. 10
48
Which of the following refrigerants has the highest freezing point?
Answer
A. CO2
49
On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are?
Answer
D. Straight inclined sloping downward to right
50
Assumption made in Fourier's law is that the heat flow
Answer
D. All the above
51
Two resistance of equal value when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of 2 . If these resistors are connected in series, the W equivalent resistance will be
Answer
B. 8 W
52
Which of the following is not the expression for power?
Answer
D. V/R²
53
Algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction in an electric circuit is
Answer
D. Zero
54
An electric heater of 2000 W is used for 20 minutes in a day. How much energy is utilized for 9 days?
Answer
B. 6 unit
55
Two resistors R₁ and R₂ are connected in parallel. Current flowing through R₁ is I₁ amps and that through R₂ is I₂ amps. Total current flowing through the circuit is I. Calculate the current through R₂.
Answer
A. I₂ = IR₁/(R₁ + R₂)
56
The dielectric strength of a medium
Answer
C. Decreases with increase in thickness
57
Energy stored in a capacitor is given by the expression
Answer
B. E = ½CV²
58
The unit of reluctance of magnetic circuit is
Answer
C. AT/Weber
59
Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
Answer
C. Energy
60
A 2 capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V and then mF connected in parallel with an uncharged 2 capacitor. Calculate the potential mF difference across the parallel capacitors.
Answer
C. 50 V
61
The RMS value of the voltage given as v = 6 + 6 sin(314t + π/6) is ______
Answer
B. √54
62
The ratio of the RMS value to the Average value is called ________
Answer
B. Form factor
63
In capacitive AC circuit
Answer
B. Current leads voltage
64
For a three-phase star-connected AC system, which statements are true? (I) line current = phase current; (II) line current = √3 × phase current; (III) line voltage = phase voltage; (IV) line voltage = √3 × phase voltage.
Answer
B. Statements I and IV only
65
A solenoid of resistance 50 and inductance 10 mH connected an 230 W V, 50 Hz AC power supply. Its inductive reactance is ________
Answer
B. 3.14 W
66
Maxwell bridge is used to measure
Answer
A. Inductance
67
In two wattmeter method of power measurement, one wattmeter reads twice the other. The Power factor of the load is _______
Answer
C. 0.866
68
Two 100 Hz sinusoidal waves are given to a CRO and the two possible conditions of Lissajous pattern are : (I) A straight line 45° inclined with respect to X-axis (II) A circle Then the phase difference of the given sinusoidal waves are _______
Answer
A. 0° and 90°
69
Insulation Resistance can be measured using _________
Answer
D. Meggar
70
If an energy meter disc makes 10 revolutions in 200 sec when a load of 450 W is connected, its meter constant is ________
Answer
B. 400 rev/kWh
71
Which approach best reduces the risk of severe injury to a bystander during an electrical shock rescue?
Answer
C. Do not touch the victim until the source of electricity is removed or isolated
72
For safe transportation and portable use of rechargeable Li-ion cells, which standard is commonly referenced internationally?
Answer
A. IEC 62133
73
Which condition most strongly accelerates capacity fade and internal resistance rise in lead-acid batteries used for PV storage?
Answer
B. Frequent deep discharges and prolonged undercharge
74
Two identical 12 V lead-acid batteries (100 Ah each) are put in parallel to increase capacity. Immediately after paralleling, a technician measures a transient current spike of 25 A between the two battery terminals before it settles. Which explanation is most appropriate?
Answer
D. Slight differences in state-of-charge and internal resistance cause equalization currents
75
A PV module datasheet lists V_OC = 38.0 V at 25°C and a temperature coefficient of −0.3%/°C for V_OC. What is the expected V_OC at −10°C? (Round to two decimals.)
Answer
B. 41.99 V
76
In a typical control circuit, a SPDT switch is used instead of SPST when :
Answer
D. The circuit needs to select between two outputs with a single actuator
77
In a wiring system, derating factors reduce the percentage of nominal conductor current rating. Which of the following scenarios would require a derating of the conductor rating?
Answer
B. The cable is installed grouped with five other current-carrying conductors in a conduct in a 50°C ambient
78
A supply circuit uses a 10 mm2 copper conductor in free air at 30°C, rated by manufacturer at 70 A under those conditions. However, the cable passes through a conduit containing four current-carrying conductors and ambient temp is 45°C. The derating factor for grouping is 0.75 and for ambient temperature is 0.88. What is the adjusted current rating of that conductor in this installation?
Answer
A. 46 A
79
A SPST switch is rated at 16 A/250 V AC. The lighting circuit is 230 V and draws 12A. The designer decides to use a SPST switch only as the ON/OFF control and down-stream a contactor handles the load. What is the current flowing through the switch? And is the rating acceptable?
Answer
B. ~12 A; yes acceptable
80
In a distribution board, a 100 A HRC fuse is upstream and a 63 A HRC fuse downstream. Under an 80 A fault, which fuse blows first (assuming coordination)? If the 63 A fuse I²t = 2500 A²·s and the 100 A fuse I²t = 5000 A²·s, what is the approximate ratio of let-through energy, 63 A versus 100 A?
Answer
A. 63 A fuse blows first; ratio ~ 1 : 2
81
Which of the following statement/s is/are true for interpoles in DC Generator? I. Interpole winding consisting of a few turns of thick wire II. Interpole winding connected in series with armature III. Interpole winding consisting of a more turns of thin wire IV. Interpole winding connected in Parallel with field winding.
Answer
C. I and II are true
82
Which of the following statements are true for armature core in DC generator? I. It is cylindrical shaped circular sheet steel disc or laminations. II. Slots are either die-cut or punched on the inner periphery of the disc. III. Slots are either die-cut or punched on the outer periphery of the disc. IV. It provides low reluctance path to the flux.
Answer
C. III and IV are true
83
Which of the following is correct for commutator segments in DC generator?
Answer
A. The segment have V-grooves, these grooves being insulated by conical micanite rings
84
In a brake test, a DC shunt motor runs at 1500 rpm. The tensions on the two sides of the brake are 2.75 kg and 0.25 kg; pulley radius is 10 cm; input current is 2 A at 250 V. Find the motor efficiency. [Hint: (2π×1500)/60 = 157]
Answer
C. 77%
85
A 200 volt, shunt motor develops an output of 17.625 KW when taking 20.8 KW. The field resistance is 50 and armature resistance is 0.05 What is the W W. efficiency when power output is 8 KW?
Answer
B. 74.07%
86
Which of the following best defines the detect torque of a stepper motor?
Answer
A. Maximum torque which the unenergized stepper motor can withstand without slipping
87
Which of the following option is/are true? i. Permanent Magnet Synchronous motors can generate torque at zero speed ii. The windage loss in Permanent Magnet Synchronous motors are reduced due to larger air gap length iii. Most of the Permanent Magnet Synchronous Motors are of cylindrical type
Answer
A. i only
88
Which of the following parameter is used to control the speed of a servo motor?
Answer
C. Voltage
89
Which of the following factor largely determines the operating point of the permanent magnet in the no-load operating conditions of a Permanent Magnet Synchronous Motor?
Answer
C. Length of air gap
90
Which of the following best describes the constructional feature of a servo motor?
Answer
B. Small diameter and long rotor length
91
The octal equivalent of binary number 111010010101.1011 is
Answer
A. 7225.54
92
Which of the following statement is/are correct about logic gates : (i) AND gate can be realised using 3 number of NOR gate. (ii) EX-NOR gate can be realised using 5 number of NOR gate.
Answer
A. (i)
93
The output Carry and Sum bit of full Adder with input A = 1, B = 1 and C = 1 are
Answer
C. Carry = 1, Sum = 1
94
If four D flipflops are available in a single chip, then how many chips are needed to design mod 258 counter
Answer
D. 3
95
A 2 MHz square wave clocks a mod-64 ripple counter. The time period of output of fifth flipflop is ___________ micro-seconds.
Answer
C. 16
96
The typical value of intrinsic stand off ratio of Uni Junction Transistor (UJT) lies between
Answer
A. 0.51 to 0.82
97
The ratio of output voltage frequency of half-wave rectifier (without filter, load is resistive) and output voltage frequency of full wave rectifier (without filter, load is resistive) when same AC input is applied to both rectifiers is _________
Answer
B. 1 : 2
98
What is the peak inverse voltage of a diode in a single-phase half-wave rectifier with capacitor filter?
Answer
B. 2 Peak input voltage ´
99
A Thyristor has a peak repetitive reverse voltage of 650 V. The rms value of input voltage is 230 V. Then the Voltage safety factor is
Answer
C. 2
100
Number of terminal in a Diac is _________
Answer
D. 2
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