| Post Name | Assistant Manager, Kerala State Backward Development Corporation Ltd |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 113/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 637/2023 |
| Date of Test | 27 September 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Select the correct statements regarding delegation principles i. Delegation decreases accountability. ii. Authority should equal responsibility. iii. Clear communication is essential for delegation. iv. Delegation should include resources needed to complete the task.
Answer
B. Only ii, iii, and iv
2
Identify the correct statements regarding centralization i. All decisions are made by top management. ii. It leads to quicker decision-making at lower levels. iii. It is suitable for small organizations.
Answer
A. Only i and iii
3
In organizational structure, "line" functions are primarily related to
Answer
B. Core activities directly related to achieving the organization's goals
4
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a bureaucratic organization structure ? i. High ļ¬exibility and adaptability ii. Clearly deļ¬ned rules and hierarchy iii. Informal communication channels iv. Lack of formalized job roles
Answer
B. ii
5
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a matrix organizational structure ?
Answer
B. Dual reporting relationships for employees
6
Which of the following statements are true about types of plans ? i. Strategic plans are short-term in nature. ii. Operational plans focus on day-to-day operations. iii. Tactical plans are broader than strategic plans. iv. Contingency plans prepare organizations for future uncertainties.
Answer
A. Only ii and iv
7
Which of the following statements about span of control is correct ? i. Span of control refers to the number of subordinates reporting to a manager. ii. A wide span of control results in a tall organizational structure. iii. Span of control is a principle of delegation. iv. A narrow span of control leads to greater levels of management.
Answer
A. Only i and iv
8
Assertion (A) : Centralized organizations have decision-making authority concentrated at the upper levels of management. Reason (R) : In centralized organizations, lower management levels have full autonomy to make critical decisions.
Answer
C. A is true, but R is false
9
Which of the following is not a barrier to eļ¬ective communication ?
Answer
D. Feedback loop
10
Which channel of communication is typically used for formal organizational communication ?
Answer
B. Written memos
11
Which of the following statements is true about communication channels ?
Answer
C. The eļ¬ectiveness of a communication channel depends on the context and audience
12
Consider the following statements about interpersonal communication I. It involves the exchange of information between individuals. II. It is always informal. III. It can be aļ¬ected by personal biases. IV. It occurs only in small groups. Which of the above statements are correct ?
Answer
B. I and III only
13
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the factors aļ¬ecting communication ?
Answer
D. Non-verbal cues play a signiļ¬cant role in conveying messages
14
Assertion (A) : None-verbal communication is often more reliable than verbal communication. Reason (R) : Non-verbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice often convey true feelings.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
15
Assertion (A) : Grapevine communication is essential in organizations. Reason (R) : It helps in spreading rumors quickly.
Answer
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
16
Assertion (A) : Feedback is an essential component of the communication process. Reason (R) : Feedback allows the sender to evaluate the eļ¬ectiveness of the message delivered.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
17
Which ļ¬nancial statement reports a company's ļ¬nancial performance over a speciļ¬c period ?
Answer
C. Income statement
18
Which schedule of the Companies Act, 2013 provides the format for the Balance Sheet and statement of Proļ¬t and Loss ?
Answer
C. Schedule III
19
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. A receivable shall be classiļ¬ed as a trade receivable if it is in respect of the amount due on account of goods sold or services rendered in the normal course of business. ii. A payable shall be classiļ¬ed as a trade payable if it is in respect of the amount due on account of goods purchased or services received in the normal course of business.
Answer
C. i and ii are correct
20
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Depreciation is the systematic allocation of the depreciable amount of an asset over its useful life. ii. The depreciable amount of an asset is the cost of an asset or other amount substituted for cost, less its residual value. iii. The useful life of an asset is the period over which an asset is expected to be available for use by an entity, or the number of production or similar units expected to be obtained from the asset by the entity.
Answer
D. i, ii and iii are correct
21
Which of the following accounting standards deals with earnings per share ?
Answer
A. AS 20
22
Which of the following accounting standards deals with Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets ?
Answer
D. AS 29
23
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? i. Extraordinary items are income or expenses that arise from events or transactions that are clearly distinct from the ordinary activities of the enterprise and, therefore, are not expected to recur frequently or regularly. ii. Extraordinary items should not be disclosed in the statement of proļ¬t and loss as a part of net proļ¬t or loss for the period.
Answer
A. Only i is correct
24
Which of the following is an example of a current asset ?
Answer
C. Marketable Securities
25
Which of the following is not included in the computation of the Quick ratio ?
Answer
C. Stock
26
Given the following information. Current ratio 2.5 Net Proļ¬t Ratio 60% Working Capital 90,000 What is the value of current assets ?
Answer
A. 1,50,000
27
Given the following information. Total sales for the year Rs. 1,75,000 Cash sales 20% of total sales Sales returns (Out of credit sales) 20,000 Opening balance of sundry debtors 8,000 Closing balance of sundry debtors 12,000 What is the debtors turnover ratio ?
Answer
D. 12 Times
28
Given the following information. Sales 5,75,000 Sales Returns 15,000 Current assets 2,00,000 Current liabilities 1,20,000 What is the working capital turnover ratio?
Answer
B. 7 Times
29
Given the following information. Gross Proļ¬t ratio 15% Stock velocity 6 months Debtors' velocity 3 months Creditors' velocity 3 months Gross Proļ¬t for the year ending 31-03-2024 amounts to Rs. 60,000. Closing stock is equal to opening stock. What is the value of closing stock ?
Answer
A. 1,70,000
30
Given the following information Equity share capital (Rs. 10 each) Rs. 5,00,000 10% preference share capital (Rs. 50 each) Rs. 4,00,000 Rate of tax 50% of net proļ¬t Net proļ¬t before tax Rs. 1,80,000 What is the EPS ?
Answer
B. Rs. 1 per share
31
Given the following information. Current ratio 2.5 Liquid ratio 1.5 Working capital Rs. 60,000 What is the value of Liquid assets ?
Answer
D. 60,000
32
Which ratio is used to assess a company's ability to meet its short- term obligations ?
Answer
B. Liquid Ratio
33
What are the four categories of quality costs ?
Answer
C. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure, External
34
Statement : Capacity planning is essential for ensuring supply chain resilience. Which of the following is true ?
Answer
A. It reduces supply chain vulnerability
35
Statement : Reliability and Durability are interchangeable quality dimensions. Which of the following is true ?
Answer
A. Reliability ensures durability
36
Statement : TQM focuses solely on customer satisfaction. Which of the following is true ?
Answer
D. TQM encompassess all aspects of organizational management
37
Statement 1 : Capacity planning is essential for ensuring supply chain resilience. Statement 2 : Benchmarking identiļ¬es idustry best practices. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
D. Both statements are true
38
Consider the following statements : Statement 1 : Continuous improvement is a key aspect of TQM. Statement 2 : Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses solely on customer satisfaction. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
B. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
39
Statement 1 : Employee empowerment is a key aspect of Kaizen. Statement 2 : Kaizen focuses on continuous improvement. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
C. Both statements are true
40
Statement 1 : ISO 9000 focuses on environmental management. Statement 2 : ISO 14000 certiļ¬es quality management systems. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
B. Both statements are false
41
Statement 1 : MRP (Material Requirements Planning) is a push-based system. Statement 2 : JIT (Just-In-Time) is a pull-based system Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
D. Both statements are true
42
Statement 1 : Vendor management involves evaluating supplier performance. Statement 2 : Supplier selection is based solely on price. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
B. Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
43
Statement 1 : Supply chain integration improves eļ¬ciency. Statement 2 : Supply chain visibility enhances customer satisfaction. Which of the following options is true ?
Answer
B. Both statements are true
44
What is the primary objective of production planning ? Statement 1 : Minimize production costs. Statement 2 : Meet customer demand.
Answer
B. Statement 2 only
45
What is a key factor to consider when making a make-or-buy decision ? Statement 1 : Opportunity costs Statement 2 : Production capacity
Answer
A. Statement 1 only
46
What is the name of the technique used to schedule production in small batches ?
Answer
C. Kanban
47
What is the term for the integration of all business functions, including production planning, ļ¬nancial management and inventory management ?
Answer
C. ERP
48
Which of the following is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for supply chain eļ¬ciency ?
Answer
A. Inventory turnover
49
What does 'safety stock' refer to in materials planning ?
Answer
A. The amount of extra inventory kept to prevent stock outs
50
In which phase of materials planning would you typically perform a demand forecast ?
Answer
C. Planning and Control
51
Which inventory system involves continuous tracking of inventory levels ?
Answer
C. Perpetual inventory system
52
What does the term 'Economic Order Quantity' (EOQ) refer to ?
Answer
B. The optimal order quantity that minimizes total inventory costs
53
What is a zero-based budget ?
Answer
B. A budget where each expense is justiļ¬ed from scratch each period
54
In purchasing, what does the term "lead time" refer to ?
Answer
B. The duration between placing an order and receiving the goods
55
What does the term "purchase order" (PO) refer to ?
Answer
B. A conļ¬rmation of the buyer's request for goods or services
56
Which type of layout arranges workstations in a sequence that follows the ļ¬ow of materials or operations ?
Answer
C. Product layout
57
What is a trade barrier that restricts the quantity of goods that can be imported ?
Answer
B. Quota
58
What is a "balance of trade" ?
Answer
A. The diļ¬erence between a country's exports and imports
59
What is an embargo ?
Answer
C. A government order to restrict trade with a particular country
60
Which document is typically required to export goods from a country ?
Answer
C. Certiļ¬cate of Origin
61
Which document is used to record the receipt of goods in storekeeping ?
Answer
C. Goods Received Note (GRN)
62
What technology is commonly used to streamline the stock veriļ¬cation process ?
Answer
A. RFID (Radio Frequency Identiļ¬cation)
63
During stock veriļ¬cation, what is the purpose of a cycle count ?
Answer
B. To count a subset of inventory items on a regular basis
64
Which of the following is an indicator of eļ¬ective stock veriļ¬cation processes ?
Answer
C. Accurate inventory records
65
The assessment of the internal and external environment is _____ analysis.
Answer
C. Industry
66
An uncertain event, if it occurs, has a positive or negative eļ¬ect on project objectives is termed as
Answer
B. Risk
67
Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools ?
Answer
C. Simulation
68
PERT means Program Evaluation and _____ technique.
Answer
D. Review
69
What is to be prepared as a ļ¬rst step to avail ļ¬nance for a new project ?
Answer
D. Summary
70
Which of the following is not the facet of project analysis ?
Answer
A. Market analysis
71
BIFR stands for
Answer
A. Bureau of Industrial and Financial Resources
72
The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on a number of sub processes placed in diļ¬erent stages called the
Answer
D. None of the above
73
Which explanation best describes the term crashing a project ?
Answer
A. Abandoning a project
74
What is designated as a node in PERT ?
Answer
B. Event
75
In critical path method crashing of activities is done starting with
Answer
A. Activity having longest duration
76
Which one of the following is the objective of crashing ?
Answer
D. Reduction in project size
77
One of the most important activities to do after scheduling a project is
Answer
B. Project Documentation
78
Assembling project team to assigning their responsibilities is done in
Answer
B. Planning phase
79
First step in project planning is to
Answer
B. Determine the budget
80
Which is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills and abilities needed to manage a task and matching the team members with the right skills to do that work ?
Answer
C. Procurement
81
Computer programs that are responsible for controlling various computer functions is called
Answer
B. System Software
82
Which of the following output device provides visual output from a computer ?
Answer
C. Monitor
83
The interfaces which is commonly used for connecting hard drives and SSDs to a computer is known as
Answer
A. SATA
84
What does the TYPE command do in DOS Operating System ?
Answer
D. Display the content of a ļ¬le
85
Which of the following is the purpose of the /etc directory in Linux Operating System ?
Answer
D. To contain system conļ¬guration ļ¬les
86
What does the "Paste Special" option in Microsoft Word allow you to do ?
Answer
A. Paste text without formatting
87
Which among the following is purpose of the 'Merge Cells' feature in Microsoft Word ?
Answer
B. To combine multiple cells into one
88
_____ feature is a spreadsheet allows you to automatically adjust the width of columns to ļ¬t the contents.
Answer
B. AutoFit
89
Which feature in Presentation Software is used to apply visual eļ¬ects to a slide transition ?
Answer
B. Transition
90
Which feature in desktop publishing software allows you to maintain consistent design elements across multiple pages ?
Answer
D. Master Pages
91
Given the IP address 192.168.1.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, how many usable hosts can be assigned within this subnet ?
Answer
C. 14
92
What is the primary function of a gateway in a network ?
Answer
D. To translate data between diļ¬rerent communication protocols or networks
93
Which of the following email protocols is speciļ¬cally designed for retrieving emails from a remote server and allows multiple devices to synchronize with the same mailbox ?
Answer
B. IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)
94
Which cybersecurity principle ensures that a system continues to operate in the presence of faults or attacks, often through redundancy and failover mechanisms ?
Answer
A. Availability
95
Which of the following video ļ¬le formats is speciļ¬cally designed for delivering video content over the internet, oļ¬ering a balance between compression eļ¬ciency and quality ?
Answer
D. MP4
96
In modern computer systems, which of the following technologies is used to increase the speed of data transfer between the CPU and RAM ?
Answer
B. DDR SDRAM
97
During a custom installation of Windows 10, which of the following ļ¬le systems is typically recommended for formatting the system partition to ensure compatibility with advanced features ?
Answer
C. NTFS
98
In a relational database, which of the following integrity constraints ensures that the values in a foreign key column must match the values in the primary key column of the referenced table, or be NULL ?
Answer
A. Referential Integrity
99
In Tally.ERP 9, how can you ensure that every transaction recorded in a ledger is automatically updated in the corresponding sub-ledgers, maintaining accurate records without manual intervention ?
Answer
B. Setting Up Control Accounts
100
Which degital ļ¬nancial service feature uses advanced data analytics and machine learning to assess creditworthiness in real-time ?
Answer
D. Alternative Credit Scoring
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