| Post Name | ASSISTANT MANAGER |
|---|---|
| Department | KERALA FINANCIAL CORPORATION |
| Question Paper Code | 029/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 282/2016 |
| Date of Test | 25 July 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is the big Indian notation?
Answer
C. The lower significant byte is in higher address
2
What is the access type used in Read Only Memory?
Answer
B. Random access
3
As the hit ratio of a cache system increases, the speed of the execution of the program
Answer
A. increases
4
The direct mapping of cache algorithm is not used due to the following
Answer
B. Cache replacement becomes necessary even if cache is not full
5
An operation on variable mark and max in C language is defined as ''if(max==mark)'' which logic gate can be used for this operation internally?
Answer
A. XNOR gate
6
A 4 bit count sequences is like the following 0011, 1001, 1100, 0110 and its repeats, identify the counter
Answer
D. Ring counter
7
The binary code that is used in Karnaugh maps for simplification is
Answer
D. Gray code
8
For a binary number, traverse from right to left, keep the bits as such till a bit 1, negate all other bits. What will we if we follow the algorithm?
Answer
D. 2's complement of the number
9
The octal representation of the hexadecimal number 34 FC is
Answer
B. 32374
10
The universal property of NAND gates find great applications in
Answer
A. IC manufacturing
11
Which of the following is not a browser?
Answer
A. Windows Explorer
12
The extend option available in display settings while connecting a projector to laptop indicates that
Answer
D. the laptop screen will show some portion of the entire display and the remaining on projector screen
13
Which of the following is not an input device?
Answer
B. Console
14
Which of the following is a valid screen resolution?
Answer
D. All of the above
15
How many printing pins are available in dot matrix printer head?
Answer
D. 24 pins
16
The official name of a network switch is
Answer
B. MAC Bridge
17
CIDR stands for
Answer
A. Classless Inter-Domain Routing
18
Email was first introduced by the person
Answer
A. Ray Tomlinson
19
Fusing is a process used in
Answer
B. Laser Printing
20
The connector used for connecting a cable to the computer network switch is
Answer
D. RJ 45
21
Who among the following persons is known as 'Modern Manu'?
Answer
D. Dr. Ambedkar
22
Which article of the Indian Constitution gives the guarantee of equality of opportunity in matters of public employment?
Answer
B. Article 16
23
What is the retirement age of the Supreme Court Chief Justice?
Answer
C. 65 years
24
What is the retention period for reply to R.T.I. (Right to Information) application?
Answer
A. 30 days
25
Name the first Indian state to enact the food security legislation even before the National Food security Bill of 2013
Answer
C. Chattisgarh
26
'The Rajyasamacharam', first malayalam news paper was published from
Answer
B. Thalassery
27
Who is the founder of the 'Namboothiri Yuvajanasangham'?
Answer
A. V.T. Bhattathiripad
28
Who is the founder of the journal 'Abhinava Keralam'?
Answer
C. Vagbhatananda
29
Who was the president of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha Committee?
Answer
D. Mannath Padmanabhan
30
Who among the following poets is the court poet of Udayavarma of Kolathunadu?
Answer
D. Cherusseri Namboothiripad
31
Who called Akkamma Cheriyan as the 'Jhansi Rani of Kerala'?
Answer
B. Mahatma Gandhi
32
Who among the renaissance leaders consecrated mirror for first time in South India?
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Who called the British rule as 'White Devil Rule'?
Answer
D. Vaikunda Swamikal
34
Who is the author of the book, 'Treatment of Thiyyas in Travancore?
Answer
A. Dr. Palpu
35
Who is known as 'Kerala Lincoln'?
Answer
B. K.P. Karuppan
36
Who is the first Jnanpith Award winner, the highest Indian Literary honour?
Answer
C. G. Sankara Kurup
37
Name the operation carried out for the liberation of Goa in 1961
Answer
D. Operation Vijay
38
The Palaruvi waterfall is in which district of Kerala?
Answer
C. Kollam
39
The NITI Aayog, replacing the National planning commission was formed in
Answer
B. 2015
40
Which of the following nation conducted the 'Miss Camel' contest, world's largest camel beauty contest?
Answer
A. Saudi Arabia
41
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized in
Answer
Question Cancelled
42
Which of the following is not an objective of Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI)?
Answer
D. Engaged in stock broking activities
43
The minimum denomination for a Certificate of Deposit is
Answer
A. Rs. 1,00,000
44
What are Stalwarts?
Answer
B. Shares of companies with growth rate greater that the growth rate of GDP of the country
45
Which of the following is not a method of Selective Credit Control by Reserve Bank of India?
Answer
A. Open market Operation
46
Expand MIGA
Answer
C. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
47
Which of the following is not a Counter Trade in Foreign Trade Transactions?
Answer
C. Forfeiting
48
What are the three basic theories of International business?
Answer
A. The theory of Comparative Advantage, The Imperfect Market Theory and Product Life Cycle Theory
49
Which of the following is an exchange rate system?
Answer
D. All of the above
50
Comparative Cost Advantage Theory was propounded by
Answer
C. David Ricardo
51
Research studies with an objective to portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation or group is known as
Answer
B. Descriptive Research
52
Systematic Sampling is a method of
Answer
C. Probability Sampling
53
The basic principles of Experimental Research Designs are enumerated by
Answer
A. R.A. Fisher
54
Interval scales have the mathematical properties of
Answer
B. Order and Distance only
55
Observation Method is a method of collecting
Answer
A. Primary Data
56
Pantry Audit is associated with
Answer
C. A Method of Data Collection
57
Standard Error is
Answer
B. Standard Deviation
58
Which Committee is known as ''Committee on Banking Sector Reforms''?
Answer
A. Narashimham Committee II
59
The provision requirement for Non performing Assets that are classified as Loss Assets is
Answer
D. 100%
60
Parallel Loan is a technique used for hedging
Answer
C. Transaction Exposure
61
A distribution having a relatively high peak is called
Answer
A. Leptokurtic
62
In India, the National Income estimation is the responsibility of
Answer
B. Central Statistical Organisation
63
Power of a hypothesis test is the probability of
Answer
D. Not committing a type II error
64
The N.K. Singh Committee (FRBM Review Committee) on fiscal discipline recommended the central government to reduce its fiscal deficit to ________ by 2023.
Answer
C. 2.5%
65
Which among the following is NOT a correct interpretation of the p-value?
Answer
C. A large p-value indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis
66
Personal income includes
Answer
D. Transfer payments
67
In a moderately symmetrical distribution, quartile deviation equals
Answer
A. 0.6745 standard deviation
68
NNP_{FC} equals
Answer
B. GDP_{MP} - Consumption of fixed capital - net indirect taxes + net factor income from abroad
69
Match the following : i. Chelliah Committee a. Introduction of value added tax (VAT) in India ii. Vijay Kelkar Committee b. Introduction of GST iii. LK Jha committee c. Reducing the cost of imported inputs iv. Constitution (115th Amendment) Bill d. Empower CBDT with appropriate administrative and financial powers
Answer
A. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
70
Which among the following is NOT a property of statistical variance?
Answer
B. The variance is independent of the change of scale
71
Net economic welfare is derived from the real GNP by deducting the following components except
Answer
C. Value of non-market activities
72
Choose the correct statement/s about normal distribution
Answer
D. All the above
73
Arrange the following sectors in the correct descending order of their contribution to Gross value Added of India during 2016-17 at constant prices : i. Construction ii. Manufacturing iii. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing iv. Trade, hotel, Communication and services related to broadcasting
Answer
A. iv-ii-iii-i
74
The value of national output with a constant price level and adjusting the inflation rate is
Answer
C. Real GDP
75
Identify the correct statement related to Goods and Services Tax Bill
Answer
A. Surcharge on supply of goods, cesses, special ad-on duty of customs, add-on duties of customs and excise and central excise duty would be replaced by Central Taxes GST
76
Net factor income earned from abroad includes the following component/s
Answer
D. All the above
77
The statistical test used to determine whether two population means are different when the variances are known and the sample size is large is called
Answer
C. One tailed test
78
Consider the following statements related to incidence of a tax Statement I : The incidence of a unit tax on the buyers will be less than the amount of the tax when the commodity is being produced under increasing cost conditions. Statement II : The incidence of tax on the buyers will be greater than the tax when the commodity is being produced under decreasing cost conditions.
Answer
C. Statement I and II are correct
79
Identify the wrong criteria for the distribution of plan assistance according to Gadgil formula
Answer
B. Tax efforts - 7%
80
In the simple linear regression model y = alpha + β x + ε , the structural parameter is
Answer
C. β
81
If fixed cost is Rs. 6,000, selling price is Rs. 5 per unit and variable cost is Rs. 2 per unit, the break-even point shall be ________.
Answer
C. 2000 units
82
_____________ is the amount at any given volume of output by which aggregate costs are changed if the volume of output is increased or decreased by one unit.
Answer
B. Marginal cost
83
Angle of incidence is __________.
Answer
A. Angle between total sales line and total cost line
84
Which of the following is not true?
Answer
D. Fixed Cost = Contribution + Profit
85
If profit is Rs. 8,000, selling price per unit is Rs. 10 and variable cost per unit is RS. 6, margin of safety shall be ________.
Answer
A. Rs. 20,000
86
If sales revenue is Rs. 1,00,000, profit is Rs. 20,000 and PV ratio is 40%, the BEP shall be ________.
Answer
C. RS. 50,000
87
_______ is concerned with probable events likely to happen under anticipated conditions during a specified period of time.
Answer
B. Forecast
88
Flexible budget is ________.
Answer
D. All of these
89
The budget that summarises and integrates all the individual budgets within an organisation, is called as _______.
Answer
D. All of these
90
Static budget is also called as _________.
Answer
C. Fixed budget
91
Who is the father zero-based budgeting?
Answer
B. Peter Pyhrr
92
_________ is the practice of preparing the budget based on evaluation of productivity of different operations in an organisation.
Answer
A. Performance budgeting
93
If interest rate offered on an investment is 10% per annum and interest is payable half yearly, the effective rate of interest will be ________.
Answer
B. 10.25% per annum
94
The proposals which compete each other are called as _________.
Answer
A. Mutually exclusive proposals
95
__________ is the factor in the activities of an undertaking which at a particular point in time or over a period will limit the volume of output.
Answer
D. All of these
96
_________ refers to a situation where a firm is not in a position to invest in all profitable projects due to the constraints on availability of funds.
Answer
C. Capital rationing
97
__________ is the ratio establishes relationship between present value of cash inflows and present value of cash outflows.
Answer
A. Profitability Index
98
The length of time required to recover the initial investment is called as __________.
Answer
D. All of these
99
Benefit cost ratio is called as ________.
Answer
C. Desirability factor
100
Return in ARR method refers to _________.
Answer
B. Earnings after depreciation and after tax
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