| Post Name | Assistant Manager(Production) |
|---|---|
| Department | Travancore Titanium Products Ltd |
| Question Paper Code | 127/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 013/2026 |
| Date of Test | 9 July 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A solution contains 4.9 g H2SO4 in 250 mL of solution. What is the normality ?
Answer
B. 0.4N
2
An ideal gas mixture contains 4 mol O2 and 16 mol N2. The total pressure is 5 atm, and the total volume is 100 L. Calculate i. Partial pressure of O2 ii. Partial volume of O2
Answer
B. 1 atm, 20 L
3
A recycle gas stream contains inert gases. To prevent inert buildup, 10 % of the recycle stream is purged. If recycle flow rate is 500 kmol/h, what is the purge rate ?
Answer
B. 50 kmol/h
4
A feed of 1000 kg/h contains 10 wt% solids. Water is evaporated to obtain a product containing 40 wt% solids. What is the product flow rate ?
Answer
B. 250 kg/h
5
For an adiabatic system
Answer
C. Q=0
6
At vapor-liquid equilibrium
Answer
C. Fugacity of each component is equal in both phases
7
A reversible reaction : A B starts with 1 mol of A. At equilibrium, 0.6 mol of A remains. What is the equilibrium conversion of A ?
Answer
B. 40%
8
For an irreversible process
Answer
D. S_gen > 0
9
If Z < 1, the gas behavior is dominated by
Answer
B. Attractive forces
10
For a process H=-100 kJ/mol S=-0.2 kJ/mol.K T=300 K Calculate G(Gibbs Free Energy)
Answer
A. -40 kJ/mol
11
A fluid whose viscosity decreases with increasing rate of shear is called a
Answer
D. Pseudoplastic fluid
12
An inclined tube manometer is preferred over a vertical U-tube manometer when measuring
Answer
C. Small pressure differences with greater accuracy
13
The Bernoulli equation for an ideal incompressible fluid along a streamline assumes
Answer
B. Frictional losses are negligible
14
For a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity profile is
Answer
A. Parabolic with maximum velocity at the center
15
Fluidization occurs when
Answer
C. The drag force exerted by the fluid balances the weight of the particles
16
In a packed bed of solid particles, the pressure drop generally
Answer
A. Increases with increasing fluid velocity
17
The pressure loss due to a sudden enlargement in a pipe is classified as
Answer
B. Minor loss
18
The Hagen-Poiseuille equation is applicable for
Answer
D. Laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular pipe
19
A Venturi meter and an Orifice meter of the same throat-to-pipe diameter ratio are installed in identical pipelines. Which statement is correct ?
Answer
A. The Venturi meter generally has a higher coefficient of discharge and lower pressure loss.
20
Priming in a centrifugal pump is the process of
Answer
C. Filling the pump casing and suction pipe with liquid before starting
21
The collection efficiency equation for the electrostatic precipitator is where, :Fractional efficiency Ac : Total collecting plate area Vpm:Particle drift velocity Q : Volumetric gas flow rate
Answer
D. η = 1 − exp(−A_c V_pm/Q)
22
The unit of Kick's constant regarding the Kick's law of size reduction is
Answer
B. KWh/kg
23
The Power Number Nₚ is defined by the expression, where P is the power, ρ is the fluid density, N is the rotational speed, and Dᵢ is the impeller diameter.
Answer
A. P/(ρN³Dᵢ⁵)
24
What happens if an agitator shaft is continuously operated at or near its critical speed ?
Answer
D. The shaft deflects excessively and may fail due to severe vibrations
25
In a single component condensed system, if degree of freedom is zero, maximum number of phases that can co-exist is
Answer
C. 2
26
What happens to clusters or particles that have a radius smaller than the critical radius ?
Answer
C. They tend to dissolve back into the parent phase
27
In continuous constant pressure filtration operation how does the filtrate flow rate vary with time ?
Answer
B. It varies inversely as the square root of time
28
During Hindered settling how terminal settling velocity of a particle does compares to its free settling velocity ?
Answer
B. It is always lower
29
The steady-state temperature distribution in a 0.25 m thick plane wall is T = 600 + 2500x − 12000x², where T is in °C and x is in metres measured from one surface. The thermal conductivity is 25 W/(m·°C). The surface temperatures and average wall temperature are
Answer
C. T_s1: 600°C, T_s2: 475°C and T_wall,average: 662.5°C
30
A cold storage consists three layers made up of inner layer A (k = 0.15 W/m K), middle layer B(k = 0.045 W/m K) and outer layer C (k = 0.75 W/m K). The temperature of the outer surface of the wall is 30 C and the inner is -15 C. If the thermal resistances of three layers (A, B and C) are 0.09 K/W, 2.41 K/W and 0.2 K/W . What is the temperature drop in the layer A ?
Answer
A. -1.5 K
31
The ratio of momentum boundary-layer thickness δ and thermal boundary-layer thickness δ_T is correlated by (i). The thermal boundary layer lies within the momentum boundary layer if the Prandtl number is (ii).
Answer
A. (i) δ/δ_T = Pr^(1/3) and (ii) greater than 1
32
Match the following : i. Nusselt number a. Ratio of Inertial force to viscous force ii. Prandtl Number b. Ratio of Wall temperature gradient to temperature gradient across the fluid in the pipe iii. Stanton Number c. Ratio of Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity iv. Reynolds Number d. Ratio of rate of wall heat transfer by convection to rate of heat transfer by bulk flow
Answer
A. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
33
The Reynold's analogy, among heat, mass and momentum assumes that the turbulent diffusivities are ___(i)____ and the molecular diffusivities are _____(ii)________ compared to the turbulent diffusivities.
Answer
A. (i) equal and (ii) negligible
34
Select the correct match(es) : i. Region II : Condensation of bubbles ii. Region IV :Unstable film boiling iii. Region V : Stable film boiling
Answer
D. i, ii, and iii
35
Assertion (A) : The rate of vapor condensation is significantly reduced in the presence of non-condensable gases. Reason (R) : The accumulation of non-condensable gases at the liquid-vapor interface will be acting as a physical barrier.
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
36
Assertion (A) : Gray bodies do not exist in practice and the concept of gray body is an idealized concept. Reason (R) : The absorptivity of a surface actually varies with the wavelength of the incident radiation.
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
37
Water having heat capacity rate of 2700 W/K enters a counter current heat exchanger at 310 K and is heated by an oil stream having heat capacity rate of 5400 W/K. The over all heat transfer coefficient is 300 W/m2K and the heat transfer area is 15 m2. The NTU is
Answer
C. 5/3
38
Assertion (A) : The long tube falling film type evaporator is used for concentrating orange juices. Reason (R) : In long tube falling film type evaporator, the hold up time is very small and heat transfer coefficients are high.
Answer
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
39
According to penetration theory average mass transfer coefficient (k) is related to diffusivity (D) as
Answer
C. k D0.5
40
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
Answer
B. For absorbers involving co-current flow of gas and liquid the slope of operating line is positive
41
Pick out the desirable properties for an absorbing solvent.
Answer
D. Low viscosity, low vapour pressure, high gas solubility and low freezing point
42
When hysteresis is observed, desorption equilibrium pressure is
Answer
A. Lower than that obtained by adsorption
43
A mixture of benzene vapour in nitrogen gas is at a temperature of 600C. If the total pressure is 600 mm Hg and partial pressure of benzene is 100 mm Hg, molal absolute humidity of the mixture is
Answer
B. 0.2 mol benzene per mol nitrogen
44
If moisture content of a solid on dry basis is 25% by weight, moisture content on wet basis is
Answer
C. 20%
45
A mixture of components A and B form an ideal solution. At a temperature T and pressure P, the vapour pressures of the components are PA = 900 mm Hg and PB = 750 mm Hg. The relative volatility under this condition is
Answer
A. 1.2
46
From the following statements, pick out the statement which is not correct.
Answer
C. For a given reflux ratio and distillate composition, use of open steam will result in smaller number of trays in the tower
47
In extraction,
Answer
B. High interfacial tension between the extract and raffinate phases results in better coalescence of emulsions
48
Match the following : I. Leaching with solvent at its boiling temperature P. Solids are settled to the same extent at all solute concentrations II. Solvent for leaching of gold from its ore Q. Decoction III. Non-vertical tie lines, connecting composition R. Unequal distribution of solute between liquid and of liquid and solid phases in leaching solid phases at equilibrium IV. Constant underflow in leaching S. Sodium cyanide solution
Answer
D. I-Q, II-S, III-R, IV-P
49
Which of the following does not affect the rate of homogeneous reaction ?
Answer
D. Specific gravity
50
Statement A : If the rate equation is not equal to stoichiometric equation, then it is called as elementary reaction. Statement B : If the rate equation is equal to stoichiometric equation, then it is called as non-elementary reaction.
Answer
B. Statement A is false and Statement B is false
51
Statement A : Reaction with higher activation energy are very high temperature sensitive. Statement B : Reaction with higher activation energy are temperature insensitive.
Answer
A. Statement A is true and statement B is false
52
Statement A : The reaction half-life increases as the initial concentration increases when the order of the reaction is less than 1. Statement B : The reaction half-life increases as the initial concentration increases when the order of the reaction is greater than 1. Statement C : The reaction half-life decreases as the initial concentration increases when the order of the reaction is zero.
Answer
A. Statement A is true and statement B is false and statement C is false
53
The rate of the reaction is 0.2 moles/liter. Second, when the concentration of the reactant A is 1 moles/liter. What is the rate of the reaction when the concentration of reactant A is 10 moles/liter ?
Answer
A. 2 moles/liter.Second
54
For a constant volume flow reactor, increase in space time will ____________ and ______________.
Answer
C. Decrease volumetric flow rate and increases residence time
55
If the number of mixed flow reactors connected in series increases then the reactor in series behaves as
Answer
D. Plug flow reactor
56
Statement A : Late mixing favors reaction when order of the reaction is greater than one. Statement B : Early mixing favors reaction when order of reaction is greater than 1.
Answer
A. Statement A is true and statement B is false
57
The dimensionless number which describes the flow contribution due molecular diffusion is
Answer
D. Bodenstein number
58
The rate of zero order reaction is 10 mol./m3s and reaction time is 5 second, then the rate constant is
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
The response of a first-order system to a step input reaches _____________ percent of its ultimate value when the time elapsed is equal to one time constant.
Answer
C. 63.2
60
In a closed-loop control system for a stirred-tank heater, consider the case when the set point is to remain fixed and the purpose of the control system is to maintain the controlled variable at the desired value in spite of changes in load. This is called
Answer
A. Regulator problem
61
A pneumatic proportional controller is used to control temperature within the 40 to 800C range. The controller is adjusted so that the output pressure goes from 6 psi (valve fully open) to 16 psi (valve fully closed) as the measured temperature goes from 51 to 55 0C with the set point held constant. Find the proportional band.
Answer
B. 10%
62
Which among these statements is incorrect ?
Answer
D. The function f(t) = t is bounded
63
Which among these instruments cannot measure humidity ?
Answer
C. Pyrometer
64
Which among these statements is incorrect ?
Answer
C. Anemometer measures the liquid level
65
For a typical feedback control system, which mode of control is suited when offset is not tolerable and excessive oscillations are to be eliminated ?
Answer
D. Proportional-integral-derivative
66
In control system design by frequency response, typical specifications for design are that the gain margin should be
Answer
B. Greater than 1.7
67
The overall transfer function for two noninteracting first-order systems connected in series is simply the __________ of the individual transfer functions.
Answer
B. Product
68
Calcium and magnesium content of a liquid sample can be determined using
Answer
A. Flame photometry
69
Which type of solar cell gives the highest efficiency ?
Answer
A. Mono crystalline
70
Wound rotor induction generator are primarily used in wind turbine because they
Answer
D. Allow variable speed operation
71
Energy Conservation Act was formed in the year
Answer
D. 2001
72
Tri sodium phosphate is added to the boiler feed water
Answer
D. Reduce scale formation
73
In practice, flow velocity adopted for the design of a grit chamber is
Answer
B. 0.25 to 3 m/sec
74
The exertion of BOD by microorganism is called
Answer
C. Deoxygenation
75
Select the correct order of following surface water treatment processes chronologically.
Answer
D. Screening, aeration, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection
76
For a given discharge the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
Answer
B. Increasing the surface area of the tank
77
Which gas having large range of flammability limit in air ?
Answer
B. Acetylene
78
Major Accident Hazard unit (MAH) is categorized based on the
Answer
D. Inventory of chemicals
79
Which type of fire extinguisher do you use to fight electrical fire if a CO2 extinguisher is unavailable ?
Answer
C. Drypowder
80
Which Rule/Act stipulates the onsite and offsite emergency plan in major accident hazardous units ?
Answer
A. MSIHC Rule
81
The concentration of oleum is expressed as wt. % dissolved __________ in 100 wt.% sulfuric acid.
Answer
C. free SO3
82
The heat produced in the combustion of sulfur is recovered in waste heat boilers as
Answer
B. high-pressure steam
83
The polymerization of ethene is an example of _________ polymerization. i. chain growth. ii. condensation. iii. radical. iv. coordination.
Answer
D. i, iii and iv
84
The production of Polyethene Terephthalate (PET) is by the reaction of ethene glycol with _______________ i. Terephthalic acid. ii. Acetic acid. iii. Dimethyl terephthalate. iv. Phenol formaldehyde.
Answer
D. i or iii
85
Production of the polyester nylon-6 from caprolactam is an example of _______________ polymerization.
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Select the wrong statement from the following.
Answer
B. Digestion time for wood base materials is less than that for bagasse.
87
Identify the physical processes in a complex oil refinery.
Answer
B. Desalting, Dehydration, Solvent dewaxing
88
Fischer-Tropsch synthesis, which converts synthesis gas into
Answer
C. long-chain alkanes
89
The most important side reaction in the urea process is the formation of
Answer
A. biuret
90
Which of the following is a co-product during the manufacture of caustic soda by electrolysis of brine ?
Answer
D. H2
91
An investment of Rs. 1,000 is carrying an interest of 10% compounded quarterly. The value of the investment at the end of the five years will be
Answer
A. 1,638
92
A total investment in a project is Rs. 10 lakhs and the annual profit is 1.5 lakhs. If the project life is 10 years, then the simple rate of return on the investment is
Answer
A. 15%
93
A machine has an initial value of Rs. 5,000, a service life of 5 years and final salvage value of Rs. 1,000. The annual depreciation cost by the straight line method is
Answer
C. Rs. 800
94
The total fixed cost of chemical equipment is Rs. 20 lakhs, the internal rate of return is 20% and the annual operating cost is Rs. 3 lakhs. The annualised cost of the plant is
Answer
C. 7 lakhs
95
Which of the following cost is related to non-manufacturing fixed capital investment ?
Answer
B. Land
96
Which of the following statements is true ?
Answer
B. PERT is considered as a probabilistic techniques and CPM is considered as a deterministic approach.
97
In the Project Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) method, the expected time (Te) is Where To is the optimistic time, Tp is the pessimistic time and Tm is the most likely time
Answer
A. (To + Tp + 4Tm)/6
98
The critical path in the network algorithm is
Answer
D. All the above
99
In project crashing, the suitable way is
Answer
B. Shorten the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical activities
100
Under MSME, India, a small-scale entrepreneurs have an annual turnover in the range of
Answer
B. Rs. 5 Crore-50 crore
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