| Post Name | ASSISTANT PROFESSOR (Civil) - TECHNICAL EDUCATION(Engg. Colleges) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 085/2023 |
| Category Code | 722/2021 |
| Date of Test | 22 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space
structure is :
Answer
D. 6
2
The moment of inertia of a triangle of base b and height h about an axis through its centroid
is bh3 / 36 . The moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through the vertex of the
triangle is :
Answer
C. bh3 / 4
3
A general system of forces acting on a rigid body can be replaced by :
Answer
A. Force vector and couple moment vector at a point
4
Concurrent forces are those forces whose line of action :
Answer
A. Meet at a point
5
The polar moment of inertia of rectangular section having width 2cm and depth 6cm is :
Answer
C. 40 cm4
6
A cable 20mm diameter and 10 m long is pulled by a force of 5000 π N. If the modulus of
elasticity is 2 × 105 N/mm2, the elongation is :
Answer
B. 2.5 mm
7
If the modulus of elasticity is twice that of shear modulus, then the Poisson’s ratio of the
material is :
Answer
A. 0
8
A homogeneous, simply supported prismatic beam of width B, depth D and span L is
subjected to a concentrated load of magnitude P. The load can be placed anywhere along the
span of the beam. The maximum flexural stress developed in beam is :
Answer
D. 3PL / 2BD 2
9
A simply supported beam AB has the bending-moment diagram shown, with linear segments and jumps at C and D labelled M. The beam is possibly under:
Answer
A. Couples M at C and 2M at D
10
In a section, shear centre is a point through which, if the resultant load passes, the section
will not be subjected to any :
Answer
D. Torsion
11
As the cube size increases, the strength of concrete :
Answer
A. Decreases
12
The early high strength of rapid hardening cement is due to its :
Answer
D. Higher content of tricalcium silcate
13
Los Angeles machine is used to test the aggregate for :
Answer
C. Abrasion resistance
14
According to IS:383, the coarsest sand falls under which grading zone :
Answer
A. I
15
Gypsum is typically added in cement to :
Answer
A. Control setting time
16
The volume of cement required for 10 m³ of brickwork in 1:6 cement mortar is approximately:
Answer
A. 3/7 m³
17
Estimate the quantity of brick masonry required for construction of a room of 4m × 3m
internal dimensions. Thickness of wall should be 250 mm. Two windows of 2m × 1.5m and
one door of 1.5 m × 2.2 m is to be provided to the room. Height between the top of plinth
beam and bottom of slab beam should be 4m :
Answer
B. 12.675 m3
18
A test facility setup costs Rs. 10,00,000/- at the time installation and its scrap values is
Rs. 50,000 at the end of the useful life in 10 years. Adopting a straight line method for
computation of depreciation, estimate the book value of the facility at the end of five years :
Answer
C. Rs. 5,25,000
19
A residential building is constructed at a cost of Rs 1,75,000/-. The total outgoing including
sinking fund is Rs. 11,500/- per annum. If the owner desires 5% return on construction, then
the gross monthly rent of the property is :
Answer
C. Rs. 1,687.50
20
The usable part of liveable area of a building is also known as :
Answer
A. Carpet area
21
Ten instrument stations are occupied in succession in a traverse. Equal error δθ is made at every station. The probable error of the final bearing is:
Answer
D. ±δθ√10
22
In a closed traverse with five sides, the error found from the fore bearing and back bearing of
the last line is +2°. The correction to the third line will be :
Answer
C. 1°12΄
23
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. A double vernier consists of two simple verniers placed end-to-end forming one
scale with the zero in the centre
24
A surveyor measures a distance between two points on a map of representative fraction 1:100
is 60 m. But later he found that he used a wrong representative fraction of 1:50. What is the
correct distance between the two points?
Answer
D. 120 m
25
The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line in N 30°E. The departure of the line is:
Answer
D. 5.00 m
26
The liquid limit of a saturated normally consolidated soil is 50%. The compression index of
the for the virgin compression curve will be :
Answer
A. 0.36
27
The saturation dry density at a particular degree of saturation can be computed as:
Answer
Question Cancelled
28
The distance from the surface of the clay particle to the limit of attraction is termed as :
Answer
C. Diffuse Double layer
29
The terminal velocity of a particle in suspension is:
Answer
A. v = D²(γ_s−γ_w)/(18η)
30
A clay is identified as normal Clay if the activity range is between :
Answer
B. 0.75 to 1.25
31
For fine-grained soil, permeability is related to particle size as:
Answer
A. k = CD²
32
At the toe of a dam the foundation soil has a porosity of 42%. If the specific gravity of the soil
solids is 2.65. Determine the critical hydraulic gradient :
Answer
B. 0.96
33
The vertical stress at a depth z under the centre of a circular area of diameter 2a and load intensity q is given by:
Answer
A. σ_z = q[1 − {1/(1 + (a/z)²)}³ᐟ²]
34
A retaining wall of 5m high retains dry sand with an angle of friction of 30º and saturated
unit weight of sand is 20kN/m2. If the water table rises to the top of the wall, determine
effective thrust at rest condition :
Answer
Question Cancelled
35
Point bearing or tip resistance of bored piles in sand is :
Answer
B. 1/2 to 1/3 of driven pile
36
The straight line representing successive state of stress in a test specimen of soil during
loading and unloading is :
Answer
C. Stress path
37
In order to minimise sampling disturbance the area ratio should be:
Answer
C. As low as possible
38
The ultimate bearing capacity of a strip footing is reduced by 50% when the position of
ground water table is at :
Answer
B. The ground surface
39
According to Terzaghi the curved surface of sliding in the passive case approximates to
Answer
D. Logarithmic spiral
40
The depth of tension crack in cohesive soil is given by :
2C 2C
Answer
Question Cancelled
41
A two span continuous beam ABC, with uniform flexural rigidity, is provided with fixed
support at A and hinged supports at B and C. If AB = 4 m and BC = 3 m the distribution
factors for BA and BC respectively are :
Answer
C. 0.5 and 0.5
42
The sag tie of a roof truss is subjected to :
Answer
A. Tension
43
The static and kinematic indeterminacy of a single bay single storey portal frame, with fixed
base, respectively are :
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
A three hinged parabolic arch of span 8 m and rise 2 m has a concentrated Load of 50 kN at
the crown. The arch will be subjected to a horizontal thrust equal to :
Answer
D. 50 kN
45
Flexibility method is also called :
(1) Force method
(2) Compatability method
(3) Equilibrium method
(4) Displacement method
Answer
B. 1 and 2 are correct
46
The number of plastic hinges required to convert a fixed beam into a mechanism is :
Answer
B. 3
47
A fixed beam AB of span 4 m has a concentrated load P at midpoint C. If AC and CB have plastic moment capacities M_p and 2M_p, the collapse load is:
Answer
C. 2.5M_p
48
A moving load of 200 kN passes from support A to B in a simply supported beam AB of span
10m. What is the maximum bending moment developed at a section taken at 6m from A?
Answer
A. 480 kNm
49
Maximum number of 20 mm diameter bolts that can be accommodated in 200 mm wide flat
is :
Answer
C. 3
50
Prying force is developed in bolted connections due to :
Answer
D. Tension
A 9 085/2023
51
Loss of pre stress is not directly related to :
Answer
C. Grade of concrete
52
A simply supported beam of span 4 m is subjected to an uniformly distributed load of
20 kN/m inclusive of self-weight. If the Limiting moment of resistance of the beam cross
section is 40 kNm, the beam is to be designed as :
Answer
D. Doubly reinforced
53
The plastic moment capacity of rectangular section 255 kNm. The yield moment of the
section in kNm is :
Answer
A. 170
54
A single bay single storey portal frame is subjected to two point loads at one third span and
midspan in the beam and a horizontal Load at beam level. The total number of possible
mechanisms is :
Answer
D. 5
55
Which one of the following is the correct statement about R.C. retaining wall :
Answer
C. Toe slab is provided with reinforcement at bottom face and heel slab at top face
56
The discharge q over a weir per unit length depends upon the head h of water over the weir,
the height H of the weir and the acceleration due to gravity. Consider the following
statements with respect to forming dimensionless constants :
(I) The number of dimensionless variables are 5
(II) The number of variables are 4
(III) The number of fundamental units are 3
(IV) The number of fundamental units are 2
(V) The number of π terms are 3
(VI) The number of π terms are 2
Choose the right combination of the statements from the options given below
Answer
C. II, IV and VI
57
Group-I contains dimensionless parameters and Group-II contains areas of significance for
dynamic similarity :
Group – I Group – II
(K) Froud’s Number (1) Flow over spillways
(L) Reynold’s Number (2) Flow around submerged bodies
(M) Euler’s Number (3) Capillary movement of water through soils
(N) Weber Number (4) Discharge through sluices
Choose the correct matching out of the following combinations
Codes (K) (L) (M) (N)
Answer
B. 1 2 4 3
58
Honey has weight density 12 kN/m³ and dynamic viscosity 0.50 kg/(m·s) at 20°C. The rise velocity of a 1.0 mm air bubble is:
Answer
B. 1.33 mm/s
59
Out of the following options given below, choose the wrong one with respect to the boundary
layer thickness :
Answer
D. Not dependent upon the pressure gradient in the direction of flow
60
Water flows over an obstruction as shown. With y₁=6 m, y₂=2 m, no energy loss and g=10 m/s², the velocity at section 1-1 is:
Answer
A. √10 m/s
61
List-I contains various irrigation efficiencies and List-II contains the procedure to calculate
it :
List – I List – II
(K) Water (1) Ratio of the quantity of water delivered into the fields from
Conveyance the outlet point of the channel to the water entering into
efficiency the channel at its starting point.
(L) Water (2) Ratio of the water beneficially used to the quantity of
application water delivered.
efficiency
(M) Water storage (3) Ratio of the water stored in the root zone during irrigation
efficiency to the water needed in the root zone prior to irrigation.
(N) Water use (4) Ratio of the quantity of water stored into the root zone of
efficiency the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered into
the field.
Choose the correct matching between List-I and List-II from the following options
Codes (K) (L) (M) (N)
Answer
C. 1 4 3 2
62
Wheat is to be grown in a field having field capacity equal to 30% and the permanent wilting
point equal to 10%. Irrigation water is to be supplied when the moisture content of the soil
falls to 20%. The root zone depth is 1m, dry weight of soil is 14kN/m3 and the specific weight
of water is 10 kN/m3 . The Net Irrigation Requirement (NIR) for the above cultivation is :
Answer
D. 14cm of water
63
List-I gives the names for geological formations with respect to its ground water potentiality.
List-II contains examples for the types given in List-I :
List – I List – II
(K) Aquifer (1) Gravel deposits
(L) Aquitard (2) Clay deposits
(M) Aquifuge (3) Granite rocks
(N) Aquiclude (4) Clay formations inter bedded with sand layers
Choose the correct matching of List-I with List-II from the following options
Codes (K) (L) (M) (N)
Answer
B. 1 4 3 2
64
Full Reservoir Level (FRL) is :
Answer
A. The maximum elevation to which reservoir water surface will rise during normal
operating conditions
65
The following statements are connected with the seepage of water through earthen dams.
Choose the false statement from the given :
Answer
D. The soil within the capillary fringe experiences reduction in shear strength
66
Among the arch dams given below, choose the one which consume least quantity of concrete :
Answer
C. Shell arch dam
67
The following statements are with respect to the canal falls, choose the wrong statement :
Answer
A. In Sarda fall, for discharges above 14 Cumecs, trapezoidal crest having upstream
side slope of 1:8 is provided
68
Consider the following statements made with respect to the design of bottom floor of a
Syphon Aqueduct :
(I) Uplift due to water table occurs when the bottom slab is not depressed below the
drainage bed
(II) The maximum uplift due to water table occurs when there is no water flowing over the
canal
(III) The maximum uplift due to water table occurs when water table reaches up to the
drainage bed level
(IV) Maximum uplift due to seepage of water from the canal occurs when both canal and
drain are running full
Choose the correct statement combination from the options given below
Answer
D. III only
A 13 085/2023
69
From the statements given below, choose the wrong one with respect to Lacey’s regime
channels :
Answer
C. Coarser the silt, more nearly the section attains a semi circle
70
A silty soil is having specific gravity (G) equal to 2.60 and porosity equal to 50%. The void
ratio for the soil is 1.00 and bulk density is 14kN/m3. The critical exit gradient for the soil is :
Answer
B. 0.80
71
The rate of change of centrifugal acceleration for the design speed of 78 kmph in designing
transition curve is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
72
If ruling gradient is 1 in 25 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 100 m, then
compensated grade should be :
Answer
D. 3.25%
73
If the tyre pressure is 0.56 and Mpa and wheel load is 40 kN then the radius of tyre contact
area is :
Answer
B. 15.07 cm
74
Mixer of coarser filler material with bitumen to remove any internal voids is called as :
Answer
C. Mastic asphalt
75
The saturation flow in a traffic signal for a width of 4.5 to 5.0 m is normally :
Answer
A. 2250 PCU/Hour
76
Shape of rotary type intersection which is suited for roads of equal importance carrying equal
volumes intersect at equal angles is :
Answer
D. Circular
77
If the proposed airport elevation is 400 m and length of runway is 1260 m then the correction
for elevation as pre standard is :
Answer
C. 1378 m
78
The reduction of runway length both in landing and takeoff due to head wind component is
around :
Answer
Question Cancelled
79
If the permissible speed is 80 km.p.h. with a cant of 10 cm then the length of the transition
curve on a B.G. line is :
Answer
A. 72 m
80
This sort of points and crossings are not recommended for main lines or heavy fast moving
rail traffic lines :
Answer
C. Three throws
81
These signals are provided to furnish special information to the drivers of train are called :
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
Prevent the segment getting twisted out of the line braces are introduced at each joint of the
arch segment in tunnel lining is called as :
Answer
C. Collar braces
83
Tunnelling method especially useful over soft strata/water bearing ground is known as :
Answer
A. Plenum
84
The average height of the waves that are observed over a period, considering the highest one
third of the waves in a group of waves is called as :
Answer
B. Significant wave
85
This force reduces the apparent weight and hence, the marine structures suffer these losses
to a great extent unless the foundations are absolutely impervious is known as :
Answer
D. Hydrostatic forces
86
The total water consumption per capita demand (q) including domestic, industrial,
commercial and civic or public use for an average Indian city, as per IS code may be taken
as :
Answer
Question Cancelled
87
Wholesome water is the one which does not contain :
Answer
D. All of the above
88
The desirable limit of chlorides in drinking water as per BIS (IS 10500:1991) is :
Answer
C. 250 mg/l
89
Detention time for a rectangular continuous-flow sedimentation tank of discharge Q, length L, width B and depth H is:
Answer
A. BLH/Q
90
Clariflocculator is
Answer
C. Coagulation and sedimentation plant
91
Which of the following chemical compound can be used for dechlorination of water :
Answer
C. Sulphur dioxide
92
A suitable layout for a water supply distribution system for a city of having a system of radial
roads emerging from different centres, is :
Answer
D. Radial system
93
The self-cleansing velocity V_s is:
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
Hydraulic mean depth of a circular sewer while running partially full is :
D 360 sin α D 360 cos α
Answer
A. 1 −
95
The BOD rate constant (K
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
Relative stability S of a treated sewage effluent is:
Answer
D. S=100[1−(0.630)^(t/37)]
97
The mathematical form of the Streeter-Phelps equation is:
Answer
B. D_t=[K_D L/(K_R−K_D)][10^(−K_Dt)−10^(−K_Rt)]+D_o10^(−K_Rt)
98
Stokes' equation for viscous flow and particles with Re < 0.5 is:
Answer
D. v_s=(g/18)(G−1)(d²/ν)
99
The F/M ratio is:
Answer
A. F/M=(QY₀)/(VX_t)
100
Sludge Volume Index (SVI) is:
Answer
C. SVI = (V_ob/X_ob) × 1000
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