| Post Name | ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN ANAESTHESIA (NCA) - MEDICAL EDUCATION DEPARTMENT |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 052/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 153/2018 |
| Date of Test | 1 November 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The trachea begins at the level of the cricoid cartilage and extends to the carina at the level of the
Answer
B. 5th thoracic vertebra
2
Sternomental distance of less than _____ cm are associated with difficult intubation
Answer
D. 12.5 cm
3
Which of the following is not true about preoxyenation
Answer
A. An end tidal oxygen concentration greater than 85% maximizes apnea time
4
The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies all of the following except
Answer
D. Glottic surface of the epiglottis
5
Recovery from blockade following spinal anaesthesia occurs in the following order
Answer
A. Motor, touch, pinprick, cold
6
While assessing motor blockade following central neuraxial blockade: Inability to raise extended leg and move knee; able to move feet is a Modified Bromage scale of
Answer
C. 2
7
Which of the following factors increase headache after spinal puncture?
Answer
A. Age, younger more frequent
8
Cervical plexus block provides anaesthesia in the distribution of
Answer
C. C 2-4
9
Kayak sign is seen in which of the following ultrasound guided regional block
Answer
D. Transversus abdominis plane block
10
The most troublesome complication that limits the dose of epidural fentanyl in labour analgesia is
Answer
A. Itching
11
Tuffiers line joins the
Answer
B. Anterior superior iliac spines
12
Which of the following non technical skills is the glue that holds all components together
Answer
A. Communication
13
The boiling point of sevoflurane is
Answer
C. 58.6°C
14
The following is not true about the low pressure section of the gas supply system
Answer
A. It is the least vulnerable area of the anaesthesia machine
15
Which of the following separates the intermediate pressure system from the low pressure system
Answer
D. Flow control valves
16
All of the following are essential components of the circle system except
Answer
B. Oxygen analyzer
17
Which of the following summarizes the relative efficiency of the mapleson systems for spontaneous ventilation to prevent rebreathing
Answer
C. A>DFE>CB
18
Pharyngeal function is restored to normal when adductor pollicis TOF function is
Answer
D. >0.9
19
In the ambulatory surgical setting the most significant cause of delayed discharge is
Answer
A. Postoperative pain
20
The most vulnerable organ to laser is
Answer
B. Eye
21
Which of the following is not an exclusion criteria for robotically assisted endoscopic CABG
Answer
D. Ejection fraction <40%
22
Obstructive sleep apnea is defined as
Answer
A. Episodic complete cessation of airflow during breathing for 10 seconds or longer occurring 5 or more times per hour of sleep with decrease of at least 4% in oxygen saturation
23
Clinical criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome include the all of the following except
Answer
C. Raised HDL cholesterol
24
Anaesthetic drug dosing is based on ideal body weight for all the following drugs except
Answer
B. Midazolam
25
Which of the following coagulation factors is decreased during pregnancy
Answer
B. XI
26
What is the change that occurs to central venous pressure during pregnancy
Answer
A. Unchanged
27
The largest increase in cardiac output occurs during which phase of pregnancy
Answer
D. Immediately after delivery
28
In massive obstetric haemorrhage the ratio of blood products to be transfused is 1 platelet plasmapheresis for every _____ units of PRBCs
Answer
C. 4-6
29
Which of the following drugs has minimal placental transfer
Answer
D. Heparin
30
Which of the following is a major criteria for diagnosis for fat embolism
Answer
A. Respiratory insufficiency
31
Which of the following characteristics is more typical of infant airway compared to adult airway
Answer
D. Vocal cords have more caudad and anterior attachment
32
According to the Glasgow coma scale, spontaneous eye opening has a score of
Answer
B. 4
33
All of the following are goals for early resuscitation in trauma except
Answer
B. Maintain platelet count more than 1,00,000 per high power field
34
During triage in mass casualty patients that require immediate attention are triaged under which colour
Answer
C. Red
35
Which component of the triple manoeuvre to maintain airway patency is used in a polytrauma patient
Answer
C. Jaw thrust
36
Treatment of choice in a patient having atrial fibrillation with ischaemic chest pain and hypotension is
Answer
A. Cardioversion
37
Minimum time required for neurologic prognostication in post arrest cardiac care is
Answer
C. 72 hrs
38
Dose of vasopressin in cardiac arrest is
Answer
B. 40 units to replace first or second dose of epinephrine
39
Potentially reversible causes of cardiac arrest include
Answer
D. All of the above
40
Antiarrhythymic of choice in arrhythmia resistant to defibrillation after epinephrine administration is
Answer
B. Amiodarone
41
Elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by all the following except
Answer
A. Rental tubular acidosis
42
All the following are causes of metabolic acidosis except
Answer
D. Hypoalbuminemia
43
Stewart Fencl approach as Analytical tool in acid-base chemistry is a .....
Answer
C. Quantitative approach
44
All the following are measures to monitor cerebral metabolism except
Answer
D. Near infra-red spectroscopy (NIRS)
45
All the following are causes of increase in partial pressure of end tidal CO₂ except
Answer
B. Pulmonary embolism
46
Mixed venous O₂ saturation (SvO₂ ) is the oxygen saturation of blood at the
Answer
A. Proximal pulmonary artery
47
Bispectral index (BIS) 80 means
Answer
B. Light/Moderate sedation
48
Cannon 'a' wave in cvp monitoring is seen in
Answer
A. Atrioventricular dissociation
49
ECG changes in hyperkalemia except
Answer
C. elevation of U wave
50
Anaesthetic drugs that trigger malignant hyperthermia except
Answer
B. Rocuroronium
51
Train of four ratio fade indicates
Answer
B. Partial non depolarizing block
52
Child torcutte Pugh classification includes except
Answer
D. ALT
53
Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children?
Answer
B. Sevoflurane
54
Which of the following side effect is seen with fentanyl?
Answer
A. Chest wall rigidity
55
Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
Answer
C. Desflurane
56
Halothane causes except
Answer
B. Tachycardia
57
Which one of the following local anesthetics belongs to the ester group?
Answer
A. Procaine
58
Induction agent of choice in hypovolemic shock
Answer
D. Ketamine
59
Compound A is related to
Answer
C. Sevofluorane
60
Ideal ventilatory strategy in ARDS
Answer
B. Low volume, High rate
61
Loss of resistance method to identify epidural space was perfected by
Answer
B. Achillo F Doglliotti
62
World Anesthesia day is celebrated every year on
Answer
C. October 16
63
Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage forming larynx
Answer
A. Cricoid cartilage
64
Suprascapular nerve arises from
Answer
C. Upper trunk of brachial plexus
65
Anatomic dead space for a 70 kg man is approximately
Answer
C. 140 ml
66
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced from
Answer
A. Choroid plexus
67
The extent of sympathectomy following spinal anaesthesia is described as extending
Answer
A. 2 to 6 dermatomes above sensory block level
68
Hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterases is the primary elimation route for all the following drugs except
Answer
D. Lignocaine
69
Which of the following drug is contraindicated in patients with porphyria
Answer
A. Thiopentone Sodium
70
Megaloblastic anemia can occur in patients with prolonged exposure to
Answer
B. Nitrous Oxide
71
Reversal agent for Recuronium is
Answer
B. Sugammadex
72
At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed amount of a perfect gas varies inversely with its pressure. This law is known as
Answer
D. Boyle's law
73
Relationship between pressure within a sphere and the tension in the wall is described by
Answer
A. Laplace's law
74
Following muscles are used for inspiration except
Answer
C. Internal intercostal muscles
75
The p50 (the partial pressure of oxygen in blood at which 50% hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen) for normal adult hemoglobin is
Answer
D. 27 mm Hg
76
Smoking cessation on the day before surgery results in which of the following effects
Answer
B. Decreased carboxyhemoglobin concentrations
77
Which of the following volatile anesthetic is the most potent depressant of the normal baroreceptor response
Answer
B. Halothane
78
During liver transplantation on a 56 year old man the Thromboelastograph (TEG) tacing showed fibrinolysis. The parameter of TEG measuring clot strength is
Answer
C. Maximum Amplitude (MA)
79
Which of the following insulin replacement therapies has the longest duration of action
Answer
D. Insulin Glargine
80
What metabolic condition is most likely associated with large amounts of normal saline infusion in an otherwise healthy patient
Answer
B. Non-Anion gap metabolic acidosis
81
The motto on the seal of the ASA is
Answer
A. Vigilance
82
the hallmark of parasympathetic activation is the release of
Answer
D. Acetylcholine
83
The sympathetic nervous system originates from
Answer
C. Thoracolumbar region in spinal cord
84
Receptor preference for Dexmedetomidine is
Answer
A. 1600:1 α 2 receptors relative to α 1 receptors
85
All of the following is true about cerebral blood flow except
Answer
D. Ketamine decreases Cerebral Metabolic Rate and cerebral blood flow
86
What percentage of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ion in blood?
Answer
D. 90%
87
The greatest amount of ventricular filling occurs in which phase of diastole
Answer
B. Rapid filling phase
88
In mallampathi scoring visualisation of soft palate, faucial pillars, uvula obscured by base of tongue is
Answer
B. Grade 2
89
ENIGMA trial evaluated the use of which anaesthetic agent
Answer
B. Nitrous oxide
90
All of the following are true about inhaled anaesthetic agents except
Answer
A. Increase rate of mucous clearance
91
Techniques to prevent post operative nausea and vomiting include all except
Answer
C. Use of inhalation agent instead of propofol if general anaesthesia used
92
Which of the following bronchial blockers have a bifurcated tip?
Answer
C. EZ blocker
93
Haemodynamic goals in a patient with aortic stenosis include all except
Answer
C. Avoid increasing systemic vascular resistance
94
All of the following are electrolyte imbalances seen in an infant with severe vomiting except
Answer
B. Hyperchloremia
95
Which of the following irrigating fluids cause transient post operative visual syndrome
Answer
B. Glycine
96
How many days must ticlopidine be stopped before administering neuraxial block?
Answer
C. 14 days
97
Parkland formula for resuscitation in burns patients uses which fluid
Answer
A. Crystalloid
98
Which of the following is not part of the lethal triad in a trauma patient
Answer
D. Haemorrhage
99
Which of the following criteria is assessed as part of the modified Aldrete Scoring System
Answer
A. Respiration
100
The pin index safety system for carbon dioxide is
Answer
C. 1.6
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.