| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Cardiology- Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 044/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 539/2023, 384/2023 |
| Date of Test | 20 April 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The following is true about mitral valve apparatus
Answer
B. MV leaflets are divided into segments A1, A2, A3 and P1, P2, P3 based on the scallops of posterior mitral leaflet.
2
Regarding iFR the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
B. The critical cut off value for iFR is less than or equal to 0.90
3
The mechanism of action of inclisiran is
Answer
D. siRNA that penetrates hepatocytes and blocks the translation of PCSK9 mRNA targeting PCSK9.
4
Most common congenital cardiovascular malformation in turner syndrome is
Answer
A. Bicuspid aortic valve
5
In Kirklin and Barrat boyes classification of unroofed coronary sinus defects, Type III is
Answer
D. Partially Unroofed mid portion of the CS
6
The following is not a stochastic injury in radiation exposure
Answer
A. Lens injury
7
A 56 year old diabetic male with acute coronary syndrome without heart failure and blood pressure of 90/60 undergoing conventional invasive coronary angiography with iodinated contrast is having a CI - AKI (Contrast induced acute kidney injury) risk as follows
Answer
D. Intermediate risk
8
Flamm's formula is
Answer
C. 3X SVC O2 + 1 X IVC O2/4
9
LV global longitudinal strain map showing predominantly a "bulls eye" pattern is suggestive of
Answer
D. Amyloidosis
10
Regarding Permanent Junctional Reciprocating Tachycardia (PJRT) all are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Due to manifest accessory pathway with slow retrograde, decremental conduction
11
The following is not consistent with severe AR
Answer
C. Regurgitant volume > 50 ml/beat
12
Prosthetic mitral valve stenosis is defined as the following (i) Mean mitral valve gradient ≥ 5 mmHG (ii) Peak mitral inflow velocity ≥ 1.9 m/sec (iii) Effective orifice area ≤ 1.5 CHOOSE an appropriate option from below
Answer
B. Statements i and ii are true
13
Prosthesis Patient Mismatch in aortic position is defined as Indexed EOA
Answer
A. <0.85
14
The famous statement that "Pathologists have long known that rheumatic fever (RF) licks at the joints but bites at the heart," was said by
Answer
D. Ernst-Charles Lasegue
15
The following were the salient features of the OCTOBER trial except
Answer
A. OCT was compared with IVUS in complex bifurcation PCI
16
A 18 years lady was referred for cardiological evaluation for frequent symptoms of light headedness, palpitations, tremulousness, blurred vision, fatigue. On examination her pulses were 84/minute and BP of 110/80 in supine position and on standing upright her pulses were 128 beats/minute and BP 94/70 mm Cardiovascular auscultation revealed normal heart sounds without any significant murmur and normal cardiac size. Most likely diagnosis is
Answer
A. POTS (Postural Orthostatic Tachycardia syndrome)
17
Taussing Bing anomaly is
Answer
C. DORV with subpulmonary VSD bilateral conus and side by side semilunar valves
18
"ANNULUS REVERSUS" in tissue Doppler imaging of the mitral valve is seen in
Answer
A. Constrictive pericarditis
19
In Cavo-tricuspid isthmus dependent Atrial flutter the commonest form of circuit is
Answer
A. Counter clockwise loop
20
The acceptable cold ishemic time for donor heart in cardiac transplantation is
Answer
D. <5 hours
21
Type A Aortic intramural Hematoma is best managed by
Answer
D. Surgical Management
22
Major exclusion criteria for TEER for mitral regurgitation in COAPT and EVEREST II trials EXCEPT
Answer
B. Mal coaptation of the A2 and P2 scallops of the mitral valve (MV)
23
In pre excited atrial fibrillation, the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Class III agent Amiodarone can be used to restore Sinus rhythm
24
A possible benefit of Re-vasculrisation of non-culprit vessels at the time of primary PCI for STEMI was shown in the following trials EXCEPT
Answer
D. CULPRIT SHOCK
25
The new drug approved by US FDA for use in HCM with obstruction is
Answer
A. Mavacamptin
26
The characteristics of pre capillary pulmonary hypertension is
Answer
B. Mean Pulmonary arterial pressure > 20 mHg, Pulmonary artery wedge pressure ≤ 15 mm HG, Pulmonary vascular resistance ≥ 3 WU.
27
In a right heart catheterization study in a patient with pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary artery pressure is 50/25 mm Hg with a mean of 32 mmHg and PA wedge pressure was 25mmHg. Which of the following statement is true i The (TPG) Transpulmonary gradient is 7 mmHg ii The DPG Diastolic pulmonary gradient is zero iii The patient has passive pulmonary hypertension (PH) iv The patient has obstructive pulmonary hypertension (PH) Choose the appropriate option
Answer
B. statements i, ii and iii
28
The treatment of choic for Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) is
Answer
A. Pulmonary endarterectomy (PEA)
29
The standard of care for Pulmonary vasoreactivity testing is
Answer
C. Inhaled nitric oxide at 10-20 parts per million
30
Phasic ejection click is a manifestation of
Answer
D. Pulmonary valve stenosis
31
The phenomenon of increase in the force of ventricular muscle contraction with increase in heart rate is
Answer
D. Treppe phenomenon
32
In normal individuals, atrial systole contributes to how much of left ventricular filling?
Answer
B. 15-25%
33
The drug Omecamtiv mecabril is a
Answer
A. Cardiac myosin activator
34
The rapid onset of action of intravenous frusemide given for acute decompensated heart failure is due to ______ action.
Answer
B. Venodilatation
35
In heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction, the ejection fraction is usually less than
Answer
D. 40%
36
Common causes of resistant hypertension include all of the following except
Answer
C. Drug induced hypertension
37
Hypertension associated with episodes of flash pulmonary edema is seen in
Answer
A. Renal artery stenosis
38
Which of the following drugs is known to cause systemic hypertension
Answer
D. Recombinant Human Erythropoitin
39
Spironolactone is used in the management of systemic hypertension in the following situation
Answer
B. Resistant hypertension
40
Rebound hypertension after drug withdrawal is common with
Answer
A. Clonidine
41
Tachycardia which exhibits warm up and cool down phenomenon (irregularity at the beginning and towards the end of the arrhythmia) is a feature of
Answer
B. Focal atrial tachycardia
42
Cavo-tricuspid dependant arrythmia is
Answer
A. Classical atrial flutter
43
Ventricular tachycardia that responds best to verapamil is
Answer
D. Left fascicular re-entrant tachycardia
44
Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia is a feature of
Answer
A. Digoxin toxicity
45
Drug of choice to prevent ventricular tachycardia in long QT syndrome
Answer
C. Betablockers
46
All are echocardiographic features of Cardiac Amyloidosis except
Answer
A. Pericardial thickening
47
Radionuclide used specifically for diagnosis of Amyloidosis
Answer
C. Technetium 99m Pyrophosphate
48
Epsilon waves in the electrocardiogram is seen in
Answer
D. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
49
The classical pattern of ventricular tachycardia in Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia is
Answer
A. LBBB with superior axis
50
A common cause of tachycardia inducing tachycardiomyopathy in children is
Answer
D. Permanent reciprocating junctional tachycardia
51
Becks triad suggests the following diagnosis
Answer
B. Cardiac tamponade
52
Which is not a feature of cardiac tamponade?
Answer
B. Prominent y descend in jugular venous pulse
53
Which is not a feature in the jugular venous pulse of constrictive pericarditis?
Answer
C. Prominent x descend
54
"Annulus reversus" is an echocardiographic feature of
Answer
A. Constrictive pericarditis
55
Cholesterol rich pericardial fluid is a feature of pericardial effusion due to
Answer
D. Hypothyroidism
56
Prostate surgery is considered to a ________________ risk surgery with regard to perioperative risk
Answer
B. Intermediate
57
Breast surgery is considered to a _________ risk surgery with regard to perioperative risk
Answer
A. Low
58
Cardio Vascular Risk Index (CVRI) is used to
Answer
C. Pre-operative risk assessment for non-cardiac surgery
59
Climbing one flight of stairs utilizes ______________ METS
Answer
B. 4
60
Most important side effect of intravenous propafenone
Answer
D. Hypotension
61
Among the following, which type of bacteria is commonly associated with native valve infective endocarditis
Answer
A. Gram positive Cocci
62
Fungal endocarditis with Candida Spp. is common in the following subsets of patients except
Answer
D. Native mitral valve
63
Which of the following statements about infective endocarditis is FALSE
Answer
A. Stenotic valve lesions are predominantly involved
64
Fever is NOT a prominent symptom in infective endocarditis in the following clinical situations except
Answer
C. Females
65
Structurally normal heart valves may be affected by infective endocarditis in some patients. The predisposing conditions DOES NOT include
Answer
D. Associated Secundum atrial septal defect.
66
A patient being treated for infective endocarditis presents with pleuritic chest pain and chest Xray shows a wedge shaped shadow. The most likely affected valve will be
Answer
C. Tricuspid valve
67
The most common congenital heart disease associated with infective endocarditis is
Answer
A. Unrepaired ventricular septal defects
68
Regarding prosthetic heart valve and pregnancy - What is NOT true.
Answer
C. Patient has to be started and to be continued on heparin throughout pregnancy.
69
A patient after mechanical heart valve replacement was advised an INR target of 1.5 - 2 plus Aspirin. The most likely prosthetic valve implanted is
Answer
C. on-X valve at aortic position
70
The incidence of atrioventricular block necessitating permanent pacemaker implantation with balloon expandable valves in transcutaneous aortic valve replacement (TAVR) is nearly
Answer
A. 6-7%
71
Cardioembolic stroke accounts for ______ % of ischemic stroke
Answer
C. 20%
72
The scoring system used to assess patients with patent foramen ovale (PFO) and benefit from treatment is
Answer
A. RoPE score
73
A patient with severe mitral stenosis in sinus rhythm need to be given oral anticoagulation in which of the following situations
Answer
B. MS in sinus rhythm with history of minor stroke.
74
Atrial fibrillation occurring for the first time and persisting continuously for more than 7 days is termed as
Answer
B. Persistent AF
75
Regarding management of atrial flutter - all are true except
Answer
A. Anticoagulation is not required in atrial flutter as in atrial fibrillation.
76
Which of the following drugs should not be used in the management of atrial flutter
Answer
A. Flecainide
77
Atrial fibrillation is linked to all the following except
Answer
D. Aortic regurgitation
78
67 years old female with history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with a trial fibrillation of 2 weeks duration, normal renal function, echocardiogram shows normal valves and good ventricular function - The best management strategy would be
Answer
C. Apixaban 5 mg twice daily
79
The drugs used in the "pill in the pocket" strategy in Atrial fibrillation include
Answer
C. Flecainide
80
Regarding AF in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - Which of the following is NOT true.
Answer
D. Anticoagulation is indicated in patients with HCM with AF only those with CHA2DS2-VASC score > 3
81
The following about aortic aneurysms are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Aneurysms of Ascending Aorta grow faster than the descending Aortic aneurysm
82
Commonest primary tumour of ascending aorta is
Answer
D. Un differentiated sarcoma
83
Which of the following is not correct regarding Aortic dissection
Answer
B. Coronary angiography must be done before surgical repair in acute type A aortic dissection
84
Deceleration injury of aorta commonly involve
Answer
B. Aortic isthmus
85
Indications for Thoracic endovascular repair for type B Aortic dissection are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Refractory Hypotension
86
The Features of thrombo angitis obliterans include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Inflammatory infiltration of internal elastic membrane
87
The drug that has shown reduction in limb events and mortality in peripheral occlusive arterial diease is
Answer
B. Ticlopidine
88
The following findings are seen in peripheral arterial disease EXCEPT
Answer
A. Loss of type I oxidative slow twitch fibres
89
All are true about Kawasaki disease EXCEPT
Answer
B. Treatment with aspirin and immunoglobulin provides symptomatic relief but do not reduce incidence of coronary aneurysms
90
Thoracic and abdominal aortic aneurysm can be a feature of
Answer
D. Gaint cell arteritis
91
Which of the following can be considered as a contra indication for pregnancy
Answer
D. Severe mitral stenosis
92
All are TRUE regarding paripartum cardiomyopathy EXCEPT
Answer
C. Women with an LV Functional recovery to normal does not carry any risk of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies
93
Which of the following statements is CORRECT
Answer
B. Tangiers disease is an HDL deficiency syndrome caused by ABCA1Gene mutation
94
Fish eye disease is an entity associated with
Answer
A. Lecithin - Cholesterol Acyl transferase deficiency
95
Which of the following drug is useful in sitosterolemia
Answer
C. Ezetimibe
96
Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be associated with pulmonary embolism due to
Answer
D. Amniotic Fluid
97
The following statement is wrong regarding pulmonary thrombo embolism
Answer
A. Progesterone only oral contraceptive pill poses a high risk
98
Which of the following does not cross react with heparin induced antibodies of hit
Answer
D. Fondaparinux
99
Assertion:- Warfarin initiation must be overlapped with heparin in treatment of DVT Reason :- Warfa in causes an intial rapid fall in antithrombin III causing initial hypercoagulability
Answer
A. Assertion is CORRECT but reason is NOT CORRECT
100
Which of the following statements is CORRECT
Answer
B. Asprin offers significant protection in unprovoked venous thromboembolism
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