| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Cardiology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 049/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 188/2024 |
| Date of Test | 31 May 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Diagnostic Criteria for Complete Right Bundle Branch Block are all except
Answer
D. Prolonged time to peak R wave (> 60 msec) in V5 and V6
2
Absolute Contraindications to exercise testing are all except
Answer
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with severe resting gradient
3
Which of the following is not a echocardiographic signs of RV pressure overload ?
Answer
C. Increased peak systolic (Sā) velocity of tricuspid annulus (>9.5 cm/s)
4
Choose incorrect one of the following.
Answer
A. In lateral radiograph, the lower posterior border of the heart is created by the right ventricle
5
Which one of the following is correctly matched ? Radio tracer Mechanism of uptake A. 13N-ammonia Na+/K+ ATPase pump B. 82Rubidium (82Rb) Passive diļ¬usion and incorporation into the glutamate pool C. 18F-sodium ļ¬uoride (NaF) Microcalciļ¬cation D. 2-deoxy-2-[18F]ļ¬uoro-D-glucose Mitochondrial uptake (FDG)
Answer
C. C only
6
All are true about Napkin-Ring Sign on coronary CT angiography except
Answer
C. Shown to have a low speciļ¬city to identify TCFA on Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
7
Type C lesion is characterized by all except
Answer
D. Irregular contour
8
Which of the following is not a traditional respiratory criteria for diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis ?
Answer
A. LV/RV interdependence
9
All genes are inherited in autosomal dominance manner except one
Answer
B. GLA
10
Which of the following one is wrongly matched ? Adult derivatives Embryological structures A. Common carotid artery Proximal part of arch artery B. Left subclavian artery left cervical intersegmental artery C. Pulmonary trunk Part of arch artery D. Brachiocephalic artery Right horn of aortic sac
Answer
C. C only
11
Acyanotic CHD can convert in to cyanotic CHD include all except
Answer
D. Common atrium
12
Which is incorrect regarding complete transposition of great arteries ?
Answer
B. VSD is the best circulatory mixing chamber
13
Which is true regarding rib notching in coarctation of aorta ?
Answer
C. It is rarely found below the ninth rib
14
Which is true regarding Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection ?
Answer
B. Inter-atrial communication is obligatory for survival
15
Which is incorrect regarding diļ¬erentiating features between morphological right and left ventricles ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
16
Which is true regarding prosthetic valve endocarditis ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
Which is true regarding rheumatic tricuspid stenosis ?
Answer
C. Kausmaul sign can be present
18
Pregnancy is not contraindicated in
Answer
D. Severe mitral regurgitation after recovered episode of infective endocarditis
19
Which is incorrect regarding Rheumatic Mitral Stenosis ?
Answer
B. Presystolic accentuation is always absent in presence of AF
20
Which is true regarding modiļ¬ed Jones criteria 2015 as applicable to India ?
Answer
C. Carditis can be diagnosed even in the presence of normal ASO titers
21
Following ļ¬ndings identify the high-risk individual of stable coronary artery disease except
Answer
C. Decreased lung uptake of tracer during stress myocardial perfusion imaging
22
Agents shown to reduce mortality after Acute Myocardial Infarction include
Answer
C. Beta blocker, Statin, ACE inhibitor
23
All are true regarding ECG changes in acute myocardial infarction except
Answer
B. Presence of additional ST elevation in inferior leads in patients with anterior wall myocardial infarction indicate proximal LAD occlusion
24
PCI in infarct related artery is not indicated in
Answer
C. Totally occlude artery > 48 hours after MI in a stable patient
25
Subclinical atherosclerosis can be detected by all except
Answer
D. Stress Myocardial Perfusion Scan (MPI)
26
The most eļ¬ective drug in resistant hypertension (deļ¬ned as clinic systolic BP ā„ 140 mm Hg despite treatment with maximally tolerated doses of three anti-hypertensive drugs) is
Answer
C. Spironolactone
27
Non-dipper hypertension is deļ¬ned by day to night variation in blood pressure of
Answer
A. <10% decline in night time blood pressure
28
All the following statements are true about renovascular hypertension except
Answer
D. Renovascular hypertension occurs insidiously and rarely presents as hypertensive urgency or emergency
29
The control of hypertension has following impact on events in decreasing order
Answer
A. Stroke > CAD > All-cause mortality
30
The most common cause of sudden cardiac death is
Answer
C. Coronary artery disease
31
Which of the following statements is false regarding drug therapy for acute decompensated heart failure ?
Answer
C. Intravenous vasodilator therapy has been shown to improve survival
32
The most speciļ¬c sign of acute decompensated heart failure is
Answer
B. Raised JVP
33
In patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and atrial ļ¬brillation, which below approach in addition to standard treatment of heart failure reduces all-cause mortality and hospitalization due to heart failure.
Answer
C. Catheter ablation
34
The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association (ACC/AHA) staging system for heart failure is deļ¬ned by four stages (A, B, C, D). Which of the following constitutes stage C :
Answer
B. Structural heart disease and symptoms of heart failure
35
Reverse nulling on gadolinium enhanced MRI is seen in
Answer
B. Amyloidosis
36
All of the following therapies reduce N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-ProBNP) levels except
Answer
D. Intracardiac cardioverter deļ¬brillator
37
The cardiac status in patients on Angiotensin Receptor-Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) can be monitored by
Answer
B. N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) levels
38
Diuretic Optimization Strategies Evaluation (DOSE) study compared continuous versus intermittent diuretic dose schedules in patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Which schedule was found to have better eļ¬cacy
Answer
C. Both of intermittent and continuous dosing had similar eļ¬cacy
39
The most frequent cause of decompensation in a previously compensated patient with heart failure is
Answer
A. Non-adherence to diet and medications
40
The pill in pocket approach can be used for cardioversion of atrial ļ¬brillation recurrences in select patients without signiļ¬cant structural or ischemic heart disease after demonstrating initial safe conversion with the pill in hospital setting before a patient is declared ļ¬t for outpatient "pill-in-the pocket" use. Which of the following drugs are approved for this indication ?
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
41
Risk stratiļ¬cation for sudden cardiac death (SCD) in a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) includes the following parameters except
Answer
C. Age > 65
42
Which of the following is not a feature of Grade 1 Diastolic dysfunction ?
Answer
B. Elevated left atrial pressure
43
Which of the following manifestations is pathognomic of AL- Amyloidosis ?
Answer
A. Periorbital ecchymosis
44
Most common mutated protein in Familial Dilated cardiomyopathy is
Answer
C. TITIN
45
Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM) with prominent conduction system disease is seen in which protein mutation ?
Answer
A. Lamin A/C
46
Becks triad, associated with cardiac tamponade includes all the following except
Answer
B. Pulsus paradoxus
47
Which of the following statements regarding pericardial constriction is false ?
Answer
B. There is a decrease in the systemic venous pressure on inspiration
48
Which is the earliest ECG sign of acute pericarditis ?
Answer
C. PR segment depression
49
GOLD PAINT eļ¬usion is seen in which condition ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
50
All the following are echocardiographic characteristics of constriction except
Answer
A. Inspiratory reversal of diastolic ļ¬ow in hepatic veins
51
Which causative organism in infective endocarditis has been associated with GI lesions, including colon cancer ?
Answer
A. Streptococcus gallolyticus
52
A 30 year old IV drug abuser presents with 1 233 k history of fever, malaise, fatigue. Transthoracic echocardiography showed a vegetation on the tricuspid valve. Which of the following organisms is most likely positive in blood cultures ?
Answer
D. Staphylococcus aureus
53
Which of the following is a predictor of poor outcome in patients with infective endocarditis ?
Answer
D. All of the above
54
Which congenital heart disease has the highest predisposition to develop infective endocarditis ?
Answer
C. Unrepaired ventricular septal defect
55
40 year old patient with a history of severe aortic stenosis aļ¬ecting a bicuspid aortic valve and aortic dilatation underwent aortic root and valve replacement. Post surgery patient developed low grade fever and fatigue after a few weeks. Clinical examination revealed splinter hemorrhages. Blood cultures grew coagulase negative staphylococci and trans esophageal echocardiography showed non speciļ¬c changes. Which of the following would be the next investigation of choice ?
Answer
C. Radio labelled leukocyte SPECT/CT
56
22 year old female who is 33 weals pregnant, who is having moderate pulmonary regurgitation after TOF repair. The OBG team enquire regarding need for antibiotic prophylaxis at the time of delivery. Which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
C. No antibiotic prophylaxis needed
57
According to the 2023 ESC guidelines which of the following are major diagnostic criteria for diagnosis of infective endocarditis ?
Answer
B. Aortic root abscess seen on CT
58
Which trial compared IV antibiotic therapy with oral step-down therapy in infective endocarditis patients ?
Answer
A. POET TRIAL
59
Which pathogen is most associated with culture negative endocarditis in patients with prior antibiotic exposure ?
Answer
B. Coxiella burnetii
60
Which antibiotic regimen id recommended for IE caused by HACEK organism ?
Answer
B. Ceftriaxone
61
Diastolic pressure gradient between pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge is deļ¬ned as pressure diļ¬erence between
Answer
B. Diastolic PA pressure and mean PCWP
62
Which of the following statement is correct regarding heritability of familial pulmonary artery hypertension ? i. AD with 70% penetrance ii. BMPR2 mutation is seen in 70% of heritable PAH iii. Endoglin mutation is the most common mutation in hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia.
Answer
B. ii and iii
63
Pulmonary veno occlusive disease is classiļ¬ed under
Answer
A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
64
Which one of the following is not correct is regarding vasodilatory test in pulmonary hypertension ?
Answer
D. Those patients showing a positive response should be treated with prostaglandins
65
Which one of the following is an oral prostacyclin receptor agonist ?
Answer
C. Selexipag
66
Which one of the following condition is associated with ECG changes usually ?
Answer
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
67
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding thrombolysis in ischemic stroke ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
68
All statement regarding endovascular treatment of stroke is correct except
Answer
A. Pre-stroke RANKIN score should be 6 or more
69
All are correct regarding management of arterial hypertension during ischemic stroke except
Answer
C. If a patient is not a candidate for reperfusion therapy BP should not be controlled
70
Which statement is false regarding primary and secondary prevention of stroke ?
Answer
C. Tight control of diabetes will reduce stroke in primary and secondary prevention
71
CHADS2 Score include all except
Answer
B. Coronary artery disease
72
Which one of the statements is false regarding atrial ļ¬brillation ?
Answer
A. Paroxysmal AF has lower risk for embolic episode than permanent AF
73
Regarding left atrial appendage closure, which statement is FALSE ?
Answer
A. Nearly 50% LA thrombus form in LA appendage
74
Regarding cardioversion of AF which statement is False ?
Answer
C. Amiodarone is more eļ¬ective than Ibutilide in the acute conversion of AF
75
Regarding pharmacological management of AF, which is false ?
Answer
A. There is low rate of rehospitalization in rhythm control, though there is no diļ¬erence in mortality stroke or bleeding
76
Which one of the statement is false ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
77
Which one of the statement is false ?
Answer
D. POISE study showed lower incidence of stroke in Metoprolol arm in patients undergoing non cardiac surgery
78
Which one of the statement is not correct ?
Answer
B. Routine measurement of Troponin is recommended in perioperative evaluation of patients
79
Which one of the statement is false ?
Answer
C. Beta blocker use is recommended prior to surgery to reduce incidence of arrythmia
80
Which one of the following should not undergo evaluation prior to non- cardiac surgery ?
Answer
D. Asymptomatic triple vessel coronary disease
81
Regarding abdominal aortic aneurysms which is not true ?
Answer
C. More common in age group of 40-60 years
82
Which of the following endoleak is most common ?
Answer
B. Type II
83
For degenerative aneurysms surgical replacement of aorta is recommended in all except
Answer
B. Arch diameter is greater than 4.5 cm
84
Stroke risk in tevar for thoraxic aortic aneurysm
Answer
B. 3-6%
85
Characteristics predicting risk of late aortic complications in initially uncomplicated type B aortic dissection include all except
Answer
D. True lumen diameter < 45 mm
86
Type 2 grade of ischemic grading with ankle brachial index is
Answer
C. 0.40-0.59
87
A 40 year old hypertensive female has symptoms suggestive of raynaud's phenomenon. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient ?
Answer
A. Clonidine
88
In popliteal artery aneurysm beyond what diameter is repair incicated ?
Answer
B. 2-3 cm
89
Which test is used to ellicit symptoms of thoraxic outlet syndrome in a patient ?
Answer
D. Roos test
90
In patients with thromboangitis obliterans all the following immunological abnormalities are seen except
Answer
C. Increased expression of factor VII
91
True about normal physiological changes occurring during pregnancy
Answer
C. Systemic vascular resistance ā
92
Which is not a predictor considered in carpreg II risk score ?
Answer
C. Bioprosthetic valve
93
Very high risk pregnancy does not include
Answer
C. Bicuspid aortopathy with aorta > 30 mm
94
Most common cause of myocardial infarction in pregnancy is
Answer
C. Spontaneous coronary artery dissection
95
Prosthetic valve thrombosis in pregnancy which is correct ?
Answer
A. Aortic prosthesis less risk than mitral prosthesis
96
Classic well's criteria to assess likelihood of pulmonary embolism includes which one with score of 3
Answer
D. An alternate diagnosis is less likely than pulmonary embolism
97
In Seattle II trial following were observed except
Answer
C. Major bleeding occurred in 1% of patients
98
In simpliļ¬ed pesi criteria which are included except
Answer
B. Altered mental status
99
IVC ļ¬lters appear to do all except
Answer
D. Reduce the overall mortality
100
Which risk factor is not included in padua predictor score for identiļ¬cation of hospitalised patients at risk of venous thromboembolism ?
Answer
D. Diabetes mellitus
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.