| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Cardiology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 102/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 808/2025 |
| Date of Test | 19 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Among the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4, which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. SA node is predominantly subepicardial. 2. AV node is predominantly subepicardial. 3. Slow pathway is anterosuperior to Kochs triangle. 4. Penetrating bundle traverses the central ļ¬brous body below the attachment of septal leaļ¬et of Tricuspid Valve.
Answer
D. Only 1 is true
2
Read the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4 about interatrial septum development. Which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. In the interatrial septum development, septum secundum is an infolding of the atrial tissue developing to the right of septum premium. 2. Most common type of Secundum ASD is due to deļ¬ciency of the septum premium. 3. Limbus of fossa ovalis present on the left side of the septum is useful in identifying the left atrium in the echo. 4. Sinus venosus ASD is not a true deļ¬ciency in the Interatrial septum.
Answer
B. All except 3 are true
3
Read the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4 regarding cardiac physiology. Which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. Wall stress in a cardiac chamber is directly related to pressure and wall thickness and inversely related to radius. 2. An increased HR progressively enhances the force of ventricular muscle contraction and is known as the Bowditch staircase phenomenon. 3. In contrast to the Frank Starling eļ¬ect which occurs in the next cycle of increase in end diastolic volume, slower force response or adaptation to abrupt increase in afterload is referred to as the Anrep eļ¬ect. 4. Atrial pressure-volume loop resembles an ellipse.
Answer
C. All except 1 and 4 are true
4
Among the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4, which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. It is useful to do coronary CT calcium scoring for decision making in lipid lowering therapy in borderline risk cases. 2. CT is better than transoesoesophageal echo to diļ¬erentiate between thorumbus and Pannus in a prosthetic valve dysfunction. 3. CT calcium scoring is useful decision making of in low ļ¬ow low gradient aortic stenosis management. 4. CT is better than MRI and is the investigation of choice in pre TAVR work up.
Answer
A. All are true
5
As per ACC/AHA criteria, in a coronary angiography, if there is ostio-proximal lesion of left anterior descending artery of length 18mm with heavy calciļ¬cation and 75 degree angulation in the lesion, with good visualisation of distal vessels antegrade, the angiographic classiļ¬cation of the lesion will be
Answer
B. Type B2
6
Regarding Echo evaluation, read the statements 1, 2, 3, 4. Which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. TEE in the mid oesophageal level at 45 degree gives the bicaval view. 2. Nyquist limit in pulse wave Doppler evaluation is equal to pulse repetition frequency 2. 3. In continuous wave Doppler study of aortic valve ļ¬ow in severe aortic stenosis, peak to peak gradient is measured. 4. Pressure half time is approximately equal to the time taken for a fall in velocity from the peak velocity to a velocity of 70 percentage of peak velocity.
Answer
B. Only statement 4 is true
7
Among the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4, which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. The Fick method relies on the principle that blood ļ¬ow (cardiac output) is directly proportional to the extent of oxygen extraction. 2. Systematic vascular resistance index is equal to systemic vascular resistance divided by body surface area. 3. A systolic area index ā„ 1. 1 has high sensitivity and speciļ¬city for identifying constructive pericarditis Vs restrictive cardiomyopathy. 4. In a post PVC, LV aorta pressure tracing, increased gradient, delayed aortic pressure upstroke and normal or widened pulse pressure suggests hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Answer
B. Only statement 3 is true
8
Read the following statements. Which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. iFR does not require pharmacologic vasodilation. 2. The critical cutoļ¬ for iFR is a ratio of diastolic coronary to aortic pressure of 0.69 versus 0.80 for FFR. 3. In FFR measurement, usually the coronary venous pressure is assumed as mean RA pressure of 5mm of Hg. 4. Patients with angiographically signiļ¬cant coronary stenosis but fractional ļ¬ow reserve (FFR) of 0.85 or greater who underwent optimal medical treatment alonedisplayed a signiļ¬cantly lower incidence of myocardialinfarction compared to patients undergoing PCI plus optimal medical treatment, as per DEFER study.
Answer
B. Only statement 1 is true
9
Read the following statements 1, 2, 3, 4 which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. Naxos disease is an autosomal recessively inherited disease aļ¬ecting desmosome proteins. 2. Swimming and exertion-induced cardiac events are strongly associated with long QT 1 and is associated with mutations in SCN5A. 3. SCN5A mutations are associated with a higher incidence of conduction abnormalities in Brugada syndrome patients. 4. Mutations in the sarcomeric gene titin (TTN) is associated with peripartum cardiomyopathy.
Answer
B. All except 2 are true
10
Read the following statements 1, 2 and 3. Which of the options from A, B, C, D is correct ? 1. Inclisiran is a small, synthetic, two-stranded interfering siRNA. 2. Mavacamten overcomes haploinsuļ¬ciency through gene editing of the causal variants inMYBPC3 variants in Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. 3. Partisiran, for TTR gene silencing in the liver is a therapeutic strategy in ATTR amyloidosis.
Answer
C. All except 2 are true
11
Which of the following is not correct ?
Answer
A. Eļ¬ciency of Co enzyme Q 10 in patients with chronic coronary artery disease was studied in Q SYMBIO trial in 420 patients and showed signiļ¬cant improvement in symptomatic status and mortality in the long term
12
Which of the following statements is true ?
Answer
B. Monacolin K is a plant derived statin molecule
13
Chest pain history with maximum likelihood of acute Myocardial Infarction is
Answer
C. Radiation to right arm or shoulder
14
Which of the following statements is correct regarding treatment of Non ST Elevation ACS ?
Answer
C. Trmetazidine shifts myocardial metabolism from fatty acid to glucose and lowers short term mortality
15
Regarding antithrombotics which statement is correct ?
Answer
C. Bivalirudin and Dabigatran directly inhibit Thrombin
16
Which is not a feature of Radiotherapy induced Mitral Stenosis ?
Answer
D. Fibrosis of sub valvar structures with commissural fusion is the underlying pathology
17
Diastolic Mitral regurgitation is seen in all except
Answer
B. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
18
Which of the following is not true regarding Mitral annular disjunction (MAD) ?
Answer
A. MAD is characterised by abnormal spatial displacement of Anterior mitral leaļ¬et
19
Identify the incorrect statement.
Answer
D. Patients with a bioprosthetic valve replaced in aortic position have a better survival rate than a mechanical aortic valve prosthesis
20
Which of the following statements is true regarding infective endocarditis (IE) ?
Answer
D. None of the above
21
Which of the following is true regarding un corrected transposition of Aorta ?
Answer
D. None of the above
22
Least Common cardiac tumour identiļ¬ed in fetuses, stillborns and neonates is
Answer
A. Myxoma
23
Doppler echo cardiographic criteria for Pathologic Mitral regurgitation include all except
Answer
D. Pan systolic regurgitant jet in at least 3 envelopes
24
Drug that can cause "Hypersensitivity" myocarditis is
Answer
D. Amphotericin B
25
Find out the correct statement.
Answer
D. A persistent LSVC draining into coronary sinus can be a reason for congenital left Mitral stenosis
26
Which among the following statements is not correct ?
Answer
D. Obese patients with HF have higher natriuretic peptide concentrations compared to non obese patients
27
In treatment of acute decompensated heart failure, a satisfactory diuretic response to I.V. loop diuretic can be deļ¬ned as
Answer
A. A urine sodium content > 50 to 70 mEq/L at 2 h and /or by a urine output > 100 to 150mL/h during the ļ¬rst 6 h
28
Which among the following is not true ?
Answer
B. Impella is a device, which can be implanted percutaneously for mechanical circulatory support which provides pulsatile ļ¬ow from LV to Aorta
29
In the comorbidities in chronic heart failure which among the following is false ?
Answer
D. GLP-1 receptor agonists are recommended for the prevention of HF events in patients with diabetes
30
Regarding Cardiac Resynchronisation Therapy (CRT) in heart failure the following is false.
Answer
A. COMPANION trial showed signiļ¬cant change in diastolic pressure after CRT
31
Which one among the following cause of secondary hypertension presents with Hyperkalemia ?
Answer
B. Gordon syndrome
32
Which among the following antihypertensives cannot be given to a lactating mother ?
Answer
D. Angiotensin receptor Blocker
33
Which statement is wrong regarding management of hypertension ?
Answer
C. In a pregnant woman with severe hypertension living in a rural area away from a maternity hospital, 10mg short-acting nifedipine may be administered sublingually
34
One among the following is wrong regarding hypertension.
Answer
D. Hypertension that develops de novo at or after 24 weeks of pregnancy is classiļ¬ed as gestational hypertension
35
The following is wrong regarding the trials related to hypertension.
Answer
C. RADIANCE-II trial used radiofrequency ablation for renal denervation and showed reduction in daytime systolic BP reduction
36
In pericardial tamponade the following is true.
Answer
C. An absent y descent and loss of diastolic venous inļ¬ow are considered classic in cardiac tamponade
37
The following is false in constrictive pericarditis.
Answer
C. Systolic area index is low in constrictive pericarditis and is used to diļ¬erentiate from restructive cardiomyopathy. Systolic area index ratio less than 1 strongly suggests constriction
38
In constrictive pericarditis which is true ?
Answer
B. Hepatic veins demonstrate enhanced expiratory ļ¬ow reversal with constriction, in contrast to increased inspiratory ļ¬ow reversal in restriction
39
Which statement is false ?
Answer
A. Rilonacept is a drug used to treat constrictive pericarditis
40
Gold paint pericardial eļ¬usion occurs in
Answer
A. Hypothyroidism
41
The following is false in the management of cardiac arrest.
Answer
C. In cardiac arrest with shockable rhythm, 3 successive shocks are to given when ļ¬rst shock is ineļ¬ective in reverting to a rhythm consistent with pulse generation
42
Which statement regarding management of VT is false ?
Answer
C. An electrical storm is deļ¬ned as three or more episodes of sustained VA occurring within 1 h, requiring either anti-tachycardia pacing (ATP) or cardioversion/deļ¬brillation, with each event separated by at least 5 min
43
Which statement is true ?
Answer
A. Class 1a antiarrhythmic drugs prolong the action potential duration
44
Which among the following is false ?
Answer
C. Quinidine is contraindicated in patients with Brugada Syndrome
45
Which among the following is false regarding ablation therapy in arrhythmia ?
Answer
B. In AVNRT, slow pathway ablation is associated with a higher risk of prolonged PR interval, a higher recurrence rate and higher risk for complete AV block compared with fast pathway ablation
46
Which among the following is not a component of revised cardiac risk index for preoperative risk assessment for non cardiac surgery ?
Answer
B. Preoperative use of 3 or more drugs to control hypertension
47
Regarding the inhalational anaesthetic agents the following statement is true.
Answer
A. Isoļ¬urane causes negative inotropic eļ¬ects and has minimal eļ¬ects on baroreceptor function
48
Regarding preoperative preparation and perioperative management of cardiac complications which among the following statement is correct ?
Answer
A. Data from DECREASE shows that HR control reduced the incidence of perioperative MI, with the greatest beneļ¬t achieved if HR was controlled to less than 70 beats/min
49
In a patient with Eisenmenger syndrome, which of the following is false regarding anaesthesia and perioperative management ?
Answer
D. Ventilation with high airway pressures is preferred to maintain better oxygen saturation
50
Which among the following statement is wrong ?
Answer
A. Remifentanil is long acting compared to fentanyl and is hence preferred in long duration procedures
51
Regarding genes implicated in causing/related to higher susceptibility to cardiomyopathies and their importance in management, which among the following is false ?
Answer
B. PKP2 gene related to protein Plakophilin 2, which is a Desmosomal protein, is linked with development of peripartum cardiomyopathy
52
In a 60-year male patient with HCM with LVOT gradient of 70 mm of HG, EF of 65%, with NYHA class II dyspnoea and glaucoma, which drug should be avoided ?
Answer
B. Disopyramide
53
In diagnosis of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy which among the following is not a major criterion ?
Answer
B. Residual myocytes 60% - 75% by morphometric analysis with ļ¬brous replacement of RV free wall myocardium in at least one sample, with or without fatty replacement of tissue seen on endomyocardial biopsy
54
Braunwald-Brockenbrough-Morrow sign in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is
Answer
D. Decrease in pulse pressure following a PVC
55
One among the following statement is false.
Answer
C. Patients with ARVC exhibit a typical monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by left bundle branch block morphology with an inferior axis
56
Individual who has a ļ¬rst degree relative with atrial ļ¬brillation has ______% increased risk of developing atrial ļ¬brillation
Answer
D. 40%
57
Annual risk of stroke is approximately _______ when CHA2DS2VASC score is 3
Answer
C. 3%
58
Antibody fragment that reverses the anticoagulant eļ¬ect of dabigatran is
Answer
C. Idarucizumab
59
After implantation of watchman device anticoagulation with warfarin is recommended for a minimum period of
Answer
D. 45 days
60
Drugs that can be administered intravenously for cardioversion of atrial ļ¬brillation are all the following except
Answer
D. Propafenone
61
Opening angle of leaļ¬ets of mechanical values relative to annulus plane ranges from
Answer
D. 75Ė-90Ė
62
Aortic prosthetic patient mismatch occurs in speciļ¬c groups of patients except
Answer
D. More than 65 years
63
Incidence of prosthetic valve endocarditis after TAVI occurs with incidence of ______ per patient year.
Answer
A. 0.5-1%
64
Emergency surgery is reasonable for patients with left sided mechanical valve thrombosis and all of the following except.
Answer
D. Failure to respond to unfractionated heparin
65
Medical treatment alone is more likely to succeed in prosthetic value endcarditis except
Answer
B. Staphy lococcal infection
66
The predictors of intervalvular ļ¬brosa invasion in infective endocarditis include all except
Answer
C. Mitral location
67
Occult embolism in infective endocarditis may occur in approximately ______% of patients
Answer
D. 20
68
All the following are organisms usually associated with late prosthetic valve endocarditis (> 1 year after placement)
Answer
D. Aeorobic gram negative Baccili
69
Drugs which can be used for infective endocarditis caused by hacek organisms are all except
Answer
C. Gentamicin
70
Absolute contraindication for TAVI include all except
Answer
D. Severe lv dysfunction
71
Which is true of wasid trial comparing warfarin to aspirin in symptomatic intracranial disease ?
Answer
D. Major hemorphage more with warfarin
72
Jupiter study using rosuvastatin found that there was _____% reduction in stroke.
Answer
D. 50
73
In patients with rtPA given for stroke the drug should be discounted if platelet count is less than ______.
Answer
D. 1,00,000
74
90% of central nervous system embolisation of infective endocarditis involves.
Answer
B. Middle cerebral artery
75
Dimensionless index indicates valvular obstruction in prosthetic aortic valve if value is less than _____.
Answer
D. Less than 0.25
76
A 43-year-old patient presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and fatigue. On examination, a systolic murmur is best heard along the left sternal border, which increases with inspiration. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals severe tricuspid regurgitation, right atrial enlargement and interventricular septal ļ¬attening. Based on the clinical and echocardiographic ļ¬ndings, pulmonary hypertension is suspected. Which of the following parameters is not suggestive of high-risk disease according to current pulmonary hypertension risk stratiļ¬cation guidelines ?
Answer
C. Six-minute walk distance > 440 meters
77
A 50-year-old woman with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension is undergoing follow-up evaluation. She is clinically stable in WHO functional class II. Echocardiography shows the following : ā¢ TAPSE : 1.9 cm ā¢ RV S' : 10.5 cm/s ā¢ RV fractional area change (FAC) : 36% ā¢ RV global longitudinal strain : -11% ā¢ Right atrial area : 27 cm2 Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of early right ventricular dysfunction in this patient ?
Answer
D. RV global longitudinal strain
78
A 32-year-old woman presents with progressive dyspnea (WHO FC IV), syncope and signs of right heart failure. She is diagnosed with heritable pulmonary arterial hypertension (HPAH). Right heart catheterization shows : ā¢ mPAP : 55 mmHg ā¢ Cardiac index : 1.8 L/min/m2 ā¢ RAP : 12 mmHg Acute vasoreactivity testing with inhaled nitric oxide shows : ā¢ mPAP decreases to 46 mmHg ā¢ No change in cardiac output What is the most appropriate initial management strategy ?
Answer
D. Initiate combination therapy including intravenous epoprostenol
79
A 36-year-old female with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) undergoes cardiac MRI for prognostic assessment. Which of the following ļ¬ndings is not associated with better survival ?
Answer
D. Right ventricular ejection fraction (RVEF) < 35%
80
A patient with PAH on triple therapy (ERA + PDE5 inhibitor + IV prostacyclin) remains symptomatic. Which of the following is true reagarding sotatercept ?
Answer
C. It can be added irrespective of background therapy
81
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms (AAA) ? i. AAAs are the most common form of aortic aneurysms. ii. Most AAAs (>80%) arise in the pararenal part of abdominal aorta. iii. Current smokers are seven times more likely to have an AAA than nonsmokers.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
82
Which of the following statements regarding Kommerell Diverticulum (KD) is/ are correct ? i. KD is the embryologic remnant located at the origin of an aberrant subclavian artery. ii. KD may lead to aneurysmal dilatation, rupture or aortic dissection. iii. Surgical intervention is considered when the diverticulum diameter exceeds 30 mm. iv. Surgical intervention is considered when the diameter of the descending aorta adjacent to the diverticulum exceeds 55mm.
Answer
D. All of the above
83
Match the vascular syndromes to the corresponding genetic abnormalities. 1. Marfan syndrome a. TGF BR1 2. Loeys Dietz syndrome b. COL 3A1 3. Vascular Ehlers Danlos syndrome c. FBN1 4. Cutis Laxa syndrome d. EFEMP2 Which of the following combinations is correct ?
Answer
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
84
In which of the following conditions, the size threshold for prophylactic aortic root or ascending aortic resection is incorrect ?
Answer
D. Turner syndrome - >4.0 cm per m2
85
Which of the following statements is/are correct about intramural hematoma (IMH) of aorta ? i. IMH represents 10 to 20 % of acute aortic syndromes. ii. It may result from rupture of vasovasorum. iii. Type-b IMH is managed medically in vast majority with endovascular procedures performed only for complications. iv. Communication between aortic lumen and hematoma is usually demonstrated in CT aortogram.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
86
Which among the following has the least association with peripheral artery disease ?
Answer
B. Hyperhomocysteinemia
87
WIFI classiļ¬cation grading for peripheral artery disease is based on all of the following indices, except
Answer
C. Ankle Diastolic pressure
88
All of the following are true regarding Vorapaxar, except
Answer
D. Greatest beneļ¬t was seen in patients with prior stroke in addition to PAD
89
All of the following are true for atheroembolism, except
Answer
A. Dorsalis pedis/ankle pulses are typically absent
90
All of the following are true for Thrombo-Angiitis Obliterans (TAO), except
Answer
C. Vascular reconstructive surgery is the deļ¬nitive treatment
91
Which of the following is/are recommended to achieve reduction in Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol ? i. Saturated fat should be more than 7% of energy intake. ii. Dietary cholesterol intake should be less than 200 mg/day. iii. Total dietary fat intake should be less than 30 to 35% of total calories. iv. Dietary ļ¬bre intake more than 14g per 1000 calories may be of beneļ¬t
Answer
B. ii, iii and iv
92
Which of the following combinations is/are correct regarding apolipoprotein and lipoprotein in which they are predominantly seen ? i. Apo B 48 : Chylomicrons ii. Apo(a) : Lp(a) iii. Apo B100 : LDL, VLDL iv. Apo E : Chylomicron remnant, IDL
Answer
D. i, ii, iii and iv
93
Which of the following combinations is/are correct regarding the eļ¬ect of antidiabetic drugs on heart failure ? i. Saxagliptin : Unfavourable ii. Canagliļ¬ozin : Beneļ¬cial iii. Sulfonylureas : Unfavourable iv. Insulin : Neutral
Answer
D. Only i, ii and iv
94
Which of the following combinations is/are correct regarding lipid lowering drugs and their mechanism of action ? i. Inclisiran-Long-acting synthetic SI RNA directed against PCSK9 ii. Bempedoic acid-Inhibits ATP citrate lyase iii. Evinacumab-Inhibitor of PCSK9 iv. Lomitapide-Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein inhibitor
Answer
B. i, ii and iv
95
All of the following are categorised as lesions under WHO class IV maternal cardiovascular risk, except
Answer
B. Asymptomatic severe aortic stenosis
96
All of the following are included in classic Wells criteria to assess the clinical likelihood of pulmonary embolism, except
Answer
C. Systolic BP < 90 mm Hg
97
All of the following are true regarding Factor V Leiden mutation except
Answer
C. Rate of recurrent venous thromboembolism is higher than non-leiden patients
98
Which of the following statements is/are true in pulmonary embolism ? i. The upper limit of normal for plasma D-dimer assay should be increased for patients older than 50 years to ten times the patient age. ii. Most common signs in ECG are sinus tachycardia and T inversion in leads V1-V4 iii. 60/60sign in 2D echo is the combination of pulmonary acceleration time < 60 ms and tricuspid regurgitation jet gradient of > 60 mm Hg iv. McConnell sign-Akinesis or dyskinesis of RV apex with relative sparing of mid right ventricular free wall
Answer
B. i and ii
99
The predictors of prognostic risk in pulmonary embolism by simpliļ¬ed Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index (PESI) include, all of the following except
Answer
D. Presence of bilateral lower limb deep vein thrombosis
100
Which of the following statements on D-Dimer assay in acute pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) is incorrect ?
Answer
B. This test is generally useful for screening acutely ill hospitalized inpatients
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