| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Emergency Medicine - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 012/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 024/2024 |
| Date of Test | 4 February 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A 56-year-old male with uncontrolled diabetes and systemic hypertension presented to your CHC with complaints of left sided chest pain and diaphoresis since 30 min. He was diagnosed to have acute anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the CMO, you decide to thombolyse the patient with the available streptokinase. You ask the nurse to give streptokinase IV
Answer
A. 1.5 million units as infusion over 60 minutes
2
Choose the correct option indicating the correct dosage for fibrinolytic therapy in ACS a. tPA i. 15-mg bolus followed by 50 mg intravenously over the first 30 min, followed by 35 mg over the next 60 min b. Streptokinase ii. Single IV bolus of 0.53 mg/kg over 10 s c. Tenecteplase iii. 1.5 million units (MU) intravenously over 1 h d. Reteplase iv. Double-bolus regimen consisting of a 10-MU bolus given over 2-3 min, followed by a second 10-MU bolus 30 min later
Answer
D. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
3
Refractory VF
Answer
B. IV amiodarone may be given as 300 mg bolus
4
Choose the incorrect option
Answer
C. Amiodarone is superior to lidocaine in management of refractory VF
5
Choose the incorrect statement regarding Aortic dissection
Answer
B. Most common site of dissection is descending thoracic aorta just below the ligamentum arteriosum
6
Choose the incorrect statement regarding Aortic dissection
Answer
C. TEE is very useful for detecting dissection of the arch and descending thoracic aorta
7
All are components of CURB-65 except
Answer
C. Respiratory rate ≥20/min
8
Incorrect statement regarding CURB-65 is
Answer
B. Both PSI nor CURB-65 is accurate in determining the need for ICU admission
9
Regarding status epilepticus, the incorrect statement is
Answer
B. Second line antiepileptic agents for status epilepticus include - fosphenytoin valproate Levetiracetam or phenobarbital
10
While in the management of status epilepticus the wrong statement is
Answer
D. Iv lacosamide can be considered as second line drug for treatment of status epilepticus
11
All are contraindications for thrombolysis in acute isochemic stroke except
Answer
D. NIHSS score ≥6
12
Regarding thrombolytic therapy in acute ischemic stroke, all are correct except
Answer
D. IV alteplase is preferred in AIS known or suspected to be associated with aortic arch dissection
13
A 82 year old male living alone was brought to the ED with c/o decreased food intake and altered sensorium since 2 weeks. On arrival he was drowsy dehydrated with BP 80/60 mmHg PR 130/min. His GRBS was found to be high. Imaging of the brain ruled out a vascular event and toxic screen was negative. His chest x-ray showed a right middle lobe consolidation. Further reports showed elevated TC with Na 134 meq/L, K 4 meq/L and normal blood ketones and urine acetone 1+. What is the diagnosis?
Answer
B. Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State
14
Regarding Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State, the incorrect statement is
Answer
D. Usually presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
15
80-year-old male brought to ER with confusion and cold extremities. He is a kc/o Hypothyroidism and was off medications for past 4 months. His family reports decreased food intake for past 4 days. O/E his vitals showed a PR 44/min, spo2 76% in RA, and BP 70 systolic, Temp 33.5C. ABG showed pH 7.11, PO2 43, Pco2 113, Hco3 25 S Na 111, K 4.5 GRBS 60 mg/dl Chest auscultation - left infrascapular bronchial breathing was noted. What is your diagnosis?
Answer
B. Myxedema coma
16
Regarding myxedema coma, the wrong statement is
Answer
D. Iv bolus of levothyroxine is contraindicated as increased risk of arrythmias
17
Choose the wrong statement
Answer
C. SIADH should me managed with fluid and salt restriction and tolvaptan
18
All are causes of acute hyponatremia except
Answer
D. Hypertonic intravenous fluids
19
Which of the following is false regarding delirium trements?
Answer
B. Ophthalmoplegia
20
A 72-year-old patient with regular alcohol use stopped drinking since the past 3 days. He presented with c/o altered behavior visual hallucination tremors and high blood pressure. His likely diagnosis is
Answer
A. Delirium tremens
21
Which of the following statements about lower gastrointestinal bleeding is FALSE?
Answer
A. Hematochezia orginates from upper GI bleeding approximately 5% of the time
22
Which of the following statements is true regarding the utility of scoring systems in Acute Pancreatitis?
Answer
C. The APACHE-II, Ranson's score are complex and data used to calculate these scores may not be immediately available, limiting their utility in the emergency department
23
Which if the following statements is false about acute appendicitis?
Answer
D. If a patient develops an appendicular mass due to diffuse inflammation of appendix then interval appendicectomy must be done
24
A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with acute scrotal pain. Which of the clinical features will in the patient will help you diagnose a testicular torsion as oppose to acute epididymitis?
Answer
D. Scrotal pain was sudden onset and the patient had episodes of nausea and vomiting
25
A 44-year-old factory worker presented to the emergency department after a huge fire explosion broke out in the nearby steel factory. The worker was trapped inside the factory building for over an hour before he could be rescued. Your emergency medical team is concerned about the airway and breathing status of the patient. All of the following are true about inhalation injury in burn patients, except
Answer
B. Inhalation injury can lead to pulmonary edema and ventilation strategy with high tidal volumes and higher plateau pressure is indicated
26
A 68-year-old presented to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On examination he was found to be hypotensive, have a pulsatile mass and also gave a history of syncope last week. All of the following are true regarding the condition suspected in this patient, except?
Answer
A. It is essential to keep the blood pressure slightly higher in this patient with administration of fluids, blood, or inotropes
27
A patient with a burn was being considered for transfer to the burn unit. One must take into account all of the following burn characteristics to consider for transfer to the burn unit, except?
Answer
C. Partial thickness burns with 15-25% body surface area
28
Which of the following is FALSE about lower gastrointestinal bleeding due to hemorrhoids?
Answer
B. Portal hypertensive patients with thrombosed external hemorrhoids should have excision of the hemorrhoids in the emergency department
29
A 76-year-old elderly patient with known heart disease presented to the emergency with serious burns and polytrauma. Fluid resuscitation was being considered. All of the following statements in regards to fluid management in burn management are true, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Fluid should be infused at the rate of 4 ml/kg/% body surface area over initial 6 hours
30
A 26-year-old patient presented to the emergency with per rectal bleeding. Which of the following statement is false related to lower gastrointestinal bleeding?
Answer
D. Acute anal fissure is usually associated with bright red blood on the surface of the stool and noted at end of defecation
31
According to ATLS, which is the indication for the definitive management of airway? I. Inability to protect the airway II. GCS < 8 III. Severe maxillofacial trauma IV. Anticipated clinical course
Answer
D. All of the above
32
Which of the following are immediate (red) triage categories? Airway obstruction I. Tension pneumothorax II. Uncontrolled hemorrhage III. Isolated extremity fracture
Answer
A. I and II are correct
33
What are the recommended endpoints of fluid resuscitation in trauma resuscitation? I. Restoration of radial pulse II. Urine output > 0.5 mL/kg/hr III. Normalization of lactate levels IV. MAP > 65 mmHg
Answer
D. All of the above
34
A 50-year-old male with hypovolemic shock from a stab wound to the abdomen: tachycardic, hypotensive and hypothermic. What is the initial management? I. Crystalloid fluid bolus 2L II. Vasopressors III. FAST exam IV. Transfuse type O negative blood if the patient does not respond to the fluid
Answer
C. I, III and IV are correct
35
40-year-old male with severe TBI. GCS of 6. CT shows midline shift and intracranial hemorrhage. Critical care management priorities : I. Maintain CPP of > 60 mmHg II. Give hypertonic saline for ICP control III. Intubate and hyperventilate to a PaCO2 of 25 mmHg IV. Monitor ICP if available
Answer
A. I, II and IV are correct
36
In assessing a patient with SCI, what clinical findings suggest a complete Spinal Cord Injury (SCI)? I. No motor function below level of injury II. Presence of sacral sensation III. Loss of all modalities of sensation below level of injury IV. Presence of deep tendon reflexes below level of injury
Answer
B. I and III are correct
37
Which of the following are components of high-quality CPR for adults during chest compressions? I. Depth of 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) II. Rate of 80-100 per minute III. Allow the chest to recoil fully between compressions IV. Minimize interruptions to < 10 seconds
Answer
C. I, III, IV are correct
38
In the treatment of an open pneumothorax ("sucking chest wound"): which intervention is needed? I. Non-occlusive dressing II. Application of a three-sided occlusive dressing III. Placement of a chest tube at site of wound IV. Immediate surgical exploration without chest tube placement
Answer
D. Only II
39
A 50 year old man collapses in a shopping plaza. Bystanders call for help and you arrive with a defibrillator. He is unresponsive, without a pulse and not breathing. What would you do to ensure effective CPR and initial treatment of a cardiac arrest? I. Immediately start chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute. II. Give two rescue breaths, then start compressions. III. Use the defibrillator as soon as it is available and shows a shockable rhythm. IV. Perform CPR with pauses of less than 15 sec to check for a pulse.
Answer
D. I and III are correct
40
A 65-year-old man, on ventilator for respiratory failure, intubated. Suddenly becomes pulseless with high airway pressure alarm. What is the next steps to assess and manage airway while performing CPR? I. Disconnect ventilator and manually ventilate with bag-valve-mask II. ETT position and patency III. Needle decompression for suspected tension pneumothorax IV. Chest compressions immediately
Answer
B. I, II and IV are correct
41
A 34 yr primigravida comes with history of amenorrhea for 2.5 months and pain abdomen. Her vitals are stable and transvaginal USG reveals unruptured ectopic pregnancy 3 × 2 cm in right adnexa and minimal free fluid in pelvis. Her beta-hCG is 2400 mIU/ml. What should be the most appropriate next step of managment?
Answer
B. Medical management with injection methotrexate
42
A patient G2P0+0+1+0 presents at 34+6 weeks POG with pain abdomen for 2 days. USG report shows : BPD-34 weeks; AC-30 weeks; FL-33 weeks; HC-33+3 weeks; placenta-grade 3; AFI-5; Umbilical artery Doppler reveals absent end diastolic flow. What should be likely plan of management?
Answer
C. Admission and inform pediatrician and plan for termination immediately
43
All of the following statements are true about acute suppurative mastitis except
Answer
A. Symptoms start within first week of delivery and usually takes 5-7 days to resolve
44
All of the following statements regarding HELLP syndrome are true except
Answer
B. The risk of Acute Kidney injury is > 50% in cases with typical HELLP syndrome
45
A primigravida presents in emergency at 31 weeks period of gestation (POG) with history of hypertension since 24 weeks POG and is on tablet labetalol 200 mg three times a day. She is hospitalised and started on corticosteroid cover along with BP monitoring. In which of the following conditions pregnancy may be delayed safely for 48 hours for completion of steroid cover?
Answer
C. Reversed end diastolic flow in umbilical artery
46
Chronic placental abruption is associated with which of the following abnormalities in the maternal serum?
Answer
A. Raised maternal serum Alpha-fetoprotein
47
Which of the following conditions has highest risk of abruption?
Answer
C. Previous abruption
48
All of the following statements are true regarding uterotonic drugs used for management of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) EXCEPT
Answer
C. In women with suspected pulmonary hypertension, Carboprost should be preferred over ergot alkaloids for management of PPH
49
The usual duration of Bakri balloon inserted in the uterine cavity for management of postpartum hemorrhage is
Answer
B. 12 hours
50
Regarding perimortem cesarean section (PMCS), all the following are benefits of the procedure EXCEPT
Answer
D. The procedure should be planned if there is no response even after 5 minutes of resuscitative measures
51
Four lifesaving interventions not necessarily in sequence during cardiopulmonary resuscitation are
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
6 year old boy, has been brought to ER with traumatic brain injury. On admission the child is noted to have dilated and sluggishly reacting pupils, high blood pressure of 170/90 mmHg and heart rate of 75/min. Which of the following intervention is immediate priority for this child?
Answer
Question Cancelled
53
A 2 year old girl with pneumonia needs to be given oxygen by nasal prongs. Select the correct flow rate rate for oxygen delivery
Answer
D. 2-4 L/min
54
A 5 year old boy with normal nutrition came with history of loose stools for 3 days and hypotensive shock. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for immediate stabilization in the emergency room?
Answer
B. Normal saline bolus 20 ml/kg over 15-20 minutes
55
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of end tidal CO2 (ETCO2) during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
Answer
C. An abrupt rise in ETCO2 can be used to detect underlying ROSC dring CPR
56
A 4 month old infant is brought to emergency with history of sudden onset rapid breathing for the past 1 hour. On examination, the infant is irritable, tachypneic (RR 60/min), heart rate of 240/min with absent peripheral pulses and prolonged capillary refill. The ECG is as shown below : Which of the following statement is true as regards management in this infant?
Answer
C. Delivery of shock timed to coincide with R wave during synchronised cardioversion
57
A 10 year old child with meningitis and urine output of 0.8 ml/Kg/hour shows the following labs Blood studies Sodium 126 mEq/L; Chloride 98 mEq/L; Potassium 3.7 mEq/L; Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L BUN 4 mg/dL; Creatinine 0.4 mg/dL; Glucose 129 mg/dL; S. osmolality 260 mosm/kg Urine studies : Specific gravity 1.025; Sodium 58 mEq/L; Osmolality 645 mosm/kg; Fe Na 2.4% What would be the most appropriate intervention in this child?
Answer
D. Restriction of fluids
58
The following are aerosol generating procedures except
Answer
C. Oxygen through non rebreathing mask
59
Hyperchloremia induced by unbalanced crystalloids causes all except
Answer
B. Renal artery vasodilation
60
The following are true about high flow nasal cannula therapy except
Answer
A. Bulk flow increases dead space
61
Which of the following statements regarding the use of Polyvalent anti snake venom are true? (i) In practice, the choice of an initial dose of antivenom is usually empirical. (ii) Recommended initial dosage of lyophilized reconstituted polyvalent antivenom for Bungarus caeruleus and Naja naja is 10-20 vials (iii) The recommended initial dosage of lyophilized reconstituted polyvalent antivenom for Daboia/Vipera russelli is 10 vials and for Echis carinatus is 5 vials (iv) When intravenous access has proved impossible, antivenom must be injected into the gluteal region (in the upper outer quadrant of buttock-intra muscular route) without delay
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
62
Which of the following statements are true regarding the role of anticholinesterase medications in poisonous snake bite management? (i) Neostigmine can be used to treat neuromuscular blockade caused by snake venom (ii) Neostigmine can help to improve respiratory muscle function but it does not reduce the need of mechanical ventilation in patients with respiratory failure due to snake venom (iii) The maximum dose of neostigmine to reverse neuromuscular blockade in patients with poisonous snake bite is 10 mg over 24 hours
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
63
Which among the following are not true regarding the use of Rumack- Matthew nomogram? (i) It can't be applied for chronic acetaminophen ingestions. (ii) Acetaminophen levels correlate well with the degree of overdoes. (iii) The nomogram is used to decide whether to administer N-acetly (NAC), the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. (iv) On plotting plasma acetaminophen concentration against the time since ingestion on the nomogram, if the point falls above the treatment line, treatment with NAC is not indicated.
Answer
B. (ii) and (iv)
64
Which among the following is not true regarding Peradeniya Scale?
Answer
B. The scale assesses 14 common clinical manifestations of poisoning with organophosphate compounds (OPC) on a three-point scale ranging from zero to two
65
Which of the following is not true regarding the clinical features in patients with Lithium overdose?
Answer
A. Acute Kidney Injury and oliguria are typical features of Lithium overdoes in patients with Serum Lithium level 1-1.5 mEq/L
66
Following statements is/are not true regarding indications for cardiac pacing in patients with cardiac glycoside poisoning (i) Severe hyperkalaemia with serum Potassium level more than 6.5 mEq/L (ii) Second or third degree AV block with a ventricular rate less than 40 per minute (iii) Sinus Bradycardia with rate less than 40 per minute with symptoms like dizziness, syncope or fatigue
Answer
D. None of the above
67
In management of the patients with Organophosphate induced delayed poly neuropathy (OPIDP), true statements are? (i) Use muscle relaxants like baclofen to manage muscle spasms. (ii) Focus on supportive care and rehabilitation, but long term follow up is not indicated as there is no cure for OPIDP. (iii) Consider anti convulsants such as carbamazepine for neuropathic pain management. (iv) Provide vitamin supplements such as B vitamins to support nerve health.
Answer
A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
68
Which of the following statement are correct regarding hallucinogenic doses of Psilocybin-a naturally occurring psychedelic compound found in certain species of mushrooms, in a 75 kg adult? (i) 5 to 15 mg itself is hallucinogenic. (ii) 15 to 25 mg produce mild hallucinogenic effects. (iii) 25 to 50 mg cause moderate hallucinogenic effects.
Answer
A. (ii) and (iii)
69
Which of the following statements are true regarding the comparison between intermediate syndrome (IMS) and organophosphurous induced delayed polyneuropathy (OPIDN)? (i) IMS and OPIDN are distinct clinical syndromes with similar pathophysiology but different clinical features. (ii) IMS is related to acetyl cholinesterase inhibition while OPIDN is related to neuropathy target esterase inhibition. (iii) IMS is featured by muscle weakness and cranial nerve involvement whereas in OPIDN there will be peripheral neuropathy and gait disturbances. (iv) IMS is generally reversible with supportive care but OPIDN is often irreversible
Answer
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
70
Which of the following statements regarding the renal involvement in poisonous snake bite victims are not true? (i) Venom induced hypotension can reduce renal perfusion leading to ischaemic damage and AKI. (ii) Venom induced coagulopathy can lead to formation of micro thrombi in kidneys, causing renal damage and AKI. (iii) Venom induced inflammation can causes renal damage and AKI through the release of pro inflammatory cytokines and chemokines. (iv) Venom induced haemolysis can lead to the release of haemoglobin which in turn lead to AKI.
Answer
D. None of the above
71
In Dupuytren's fracture dislocation (i) There is partial diastasis of the inferior tibiofibular joint (ii) There is complete diastasis of the inferior tibiofibular joint (iii) Can be associated with Maisonneuve fracture (iv) Cannot be associated with Maisonneuve fracture
Answer
D. (ii) and (iv) are correct
72
Patient coming to the emergency department with a painful shoulder with history of electrocution has on examination, an empty glenoid fossa, total loss of external rotation of the shoulder and a globular mass is palpable inferior to the spine of scapula. The diagnosis is
Answer
C. Posterior dislocation shoulder
73
A patient with history of incised wound over volar aspect of the wrist has got a positive Forment's sign without evidence of any other nerve injury. Then, (i) Finger abductors will be functioning (ii) Finger abductors will not be paralyzed (iii) Long thumb flexor will not be paralysed (iv) Short abductor of the thumb will not be paralyzed
Answer
D. (iii) and (iv) are correct
74
A patient with closed radial head dislocation has a peripheral nerve injury with finger drop alone without wrist drop, then
Answer
A. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus will be spared
75
In a closed fracture tibia with compartment syndrome (i) Sufficiently complete fasciotomy can be done subcutaneousaly through small skin incisions. (ii) Fasciotomy can be safely done even after 24 hours of injury. (iii) The fracture has to be stabilized early. (iv) Subtotal fasciotomy will suffice.
Answer
D. Only (iii) is correct
76
Morel-Lavallée lesion is
Answer
B. High velocity closed injury affecting subcutaneous tissue
77
Comparing Type I and Type V Salter-Harris physeal injuries (i) Type I has sufficiently detectable radiological findings and has a good prognosis. (ii) Type I has sufficiently detectable radiological findings and has a bad prognosis. (iii) Type V has minimal radiological findings and has a good prognosis. (iv) Type V has minimal radiological findings and has a bad prognosis
Answer
C. (i) and (iv) are correct
78
In an acutely injured knee, the most sensitive test to detect anterior cruciate ligament injury is
Answer
B. Lachman test
79
A forty year old man presents to the casualty 4 hours after a road traffic accident in which he sustained a Type C 3º open tibial fracture. His BP at the time of admission was 80/60 and the peripheral pulses were palpable. The BP got corrected to 100/80 with blood transfusion. The MESS is
Answer
B. 5
80
A patient with an incised wound over the dorsum of wrist has difficulty in extending and abducting the thumb, then which compartments of the extensor retinaculam should be explored for repairing the tendons
Answer
D. 1 and 3
81
Which of the following statements are correct about treatment of recurrent epistaxis in Osler-Weber Rendu disases? (i) Intranasal laser coagulation (ii) Septodermoplasty (iii) Young's operation
Answer
D. All are correct
82
Following are the indication for laterate canthotomy in retrobulbar hematoma except
Answer
C. Suspected open globe
83
Which of the following statements are correct about refractory epistaxis? (i) Stamm's S point is one of the bleeding points (ii) Treated by endoscopic cauterization/ligation of vessel (iii) Angiography and embolization given excellent control of bleeding
Answer
D. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
84
Which of the following statements are correct about the endoscopic sphenopalatine artery ligation? (i) Crista ethmoidalis used as land mark for sphenopalactine foramen (ii) Bipolar coagulation is better than clipping the vessel (iii) Succes rate is only 70%
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
85
Anterior ethmoid artery exits the orbit approximately _________ mm posterior to anterior lacrimal crest.
Answer
B. 24
86
Curacao criteria in Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia include following except
Answer
A. Autosomal recessive
87
Which of the following statements are correct regarding cricothyrotomy? (i) Through cricothyroid membrane (ii) Contraindicated in children below 10 yrs (iii) Vertical incision in cricothyroid membrane
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
88
Which of the following statements are correct regarding laryngeal needle ventilation? (i) Done with 14-gauge needle (ii) Done with 16-gauge needle (iii) Inserted 30-degree angle caudally through cricothyroid membrane (iv) Inserted 30-degree angle cranially though cricothyroid membrane
Answer
C. (i) and (iii)
89
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Seldinger approach of cricothyrotomy? (i) Percutaneous method (ii) Cannula usually used is 13 Fr (iii) Subglottic stenosis can occur
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
90
30 yr old male patient undergone endoscopic sinus surgery for extensive ethmoidal polyposis. Postoperatively patient developed pain in Right eye, proptosis and ophthalmoplegia with chemosis and decreased vision. Which of the following statements are correct regarding management? (i) Remove the nasal pack (ii) Corticosteroid contraindicated (iii) Lateral canthotomy and cantholysis
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
91
While performing an Ankle Block, which among the following Nerves are blocked Except
Answer
C. Obturator N
92
Preferred site for intraosseous needle insertion in a child less then 5 years is
Answer
B. Proximal Tibia
93
Contraindications for IJV line insertion include all Except
Answer
C. Obesity
94
The steps of Epley maneuver include all Except
Answer
C. 60 seconds interval between each step
95
A 5-year old child was brought to Emergency Department with superficial and deep Burns on his chest. What is the most accurate method to assess the total body surface area involved?
Answer
B. Lund and Browder chart
96
In suspected case of "Rape", Medical Practitioners need to examine and mention the following findings. (i) Bleeding (ii) Swelling (iii) Tenderness (iv) Size of the vaginal introitus
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
97
In suspected case of "Rape", Medical Practitioners should follow the precautions while collecting the "Exhibits". (i) Protective Gloves, Apron and mask should be worn (ii) Change the Gloves after every sample collection (iii) Disposable / Sterilised devises used (iv) Cough or Sneezing should be avoided
Answer
D. All of them are correct
98
A 15-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency with alleged history of ingestion of unknown substance. She is in altered sensorium and you have started your management. The relatives are creating a mob violence, and you need to counsel the family. What is the first step will you follow for counselling?
Answer
B. Setting up the interview
99
There is a 30-year-old male who is admitted in the ICU after severe traumatic brain injury. After 48 hours he has been examined and is confirmed to be brain dead and is being worked up for organ donation. He has a cardiac arrest during his ongoing supportive measures, as per the Maastricht classification which category does he belongs to?
Answer
D. Category 4
100
12 yr old female child with neuro-regrssion is brought with alleged history of burn injury as she was standing near an oil lamp. Child was stabilised by the ED team and is being transferred to the ICU. How do you handover this case to the ICU team?
Answer
A. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
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