| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Endocrinology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 050/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 189/2024 |
| Date of Test | 31 May 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Vaso Inhibin is referred to
Answer
A. 16-kDa Prolactin
2
The production of spermatozoa per day by testes
Answer
A. 1000 per heart beat
3
The following statements are true regarding TSH except
Answer
D. Beta sub unit of TSH is having 102 amino acids
4
Hereditary Pituitary deļ¬ciency caused by transcription factor mutations inherited as AR except
Answer
B. LHX 4
5
The earliest change seen in the treatment of Hypothyroidism
Answer
B. Increase in Na, if Hyponatraemic
6
The gene responsible for gonadal dysgenesis and sudden infant death syndrome is
Answer
A. TSPYL I
7
Ideal glycaemic metrics are all except
Answer
D. TBR < 54 mgs < 2%
8
The following statement are true except
Answer
B. REDUCE IT showed reduction of vascular events with EZETIMIBE
9
The drug reduces the LP(a) are all except
Answer
B. Statin
10
The following are the cause of very low HDL less than 10 mgs/dl, except
Answer
D. SR-B1 deļ¬ciency
11
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Growth Hormone(GH) secreting adenoma ? (i) Sparsely staining cytoplasmic GH granules are rapidly growing (ii) Monomorphous acidophilic stem cell adenomas are invasive (iii) Somatotroph hyperplasia on silver staining displays a well-preserved reticulin network with a surrounding pseudocapsule
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
12
Which of the following statement is/are correct about clinical features of acromegaly ? (i) Hyperhidrosis and malodorous oily skin are rare presentation (ii) Sleep apnoea associated with higher GH and IGF1 levels (iii) Manifestations of acromegaly are caused by either central preessure eļ¬ects of the pituitary mass or peripheral actions of excess GH and IGF1
Answer
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
13
Which of the following statement is/are correct about diagnosis of acromegaly ?
Answer
C. In patients with acromegaly, GH levels may increase after oral glucose
14
Which of the following statement is/are correct about treatment of acromegaly ? (i) Postoperative GH level measured within 24 hours of surgery is a signiļ¬cant outcome predictor. (ii) After 48 hours of successful resection, metabolic dysfunction and soft tissue swelling start improving. (iii) In women, age of less than 50 years had remission rate lower than men.
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
15
Which of the following statement is/are correct about complications of acromegaly ? (i) History of pituitary irradiation is a signiļ¬cant mortality determinant. (ii) Hypertension present in 50% cases of acromegaly. (iii) Acromegaly is associated with lipogenesis
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
16
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Somatostatin Receptor Ligands (SRLs) in acromegaly ? (i) An octapeptide somatostatin analogue, which binds predominantly to SST2. (ii) Long-acting SRL formulations (20-30 mg/intramuscularly), eļ¬ectively suppressed integrated GH levels for upto 49 days. (iii) Headache usually resolves within minutes of octreotide injection.
Answer
C. All of above (i, ii and iii)
17
Which of the following statement is/are correct about panhypopituitarism ? (i) Most common cause is non-functioning adenoma. (ii) Pituitary insuļ¬ciency develops insidiously. (iii) Commonly associated with diabetes insipidus.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
18
Which of the following statement is/are correct about clinical panhypopituitarism ? (i) In hypopituitarism caused by radiotherapy, where GH and luteinizing hormone/ follicle-stimulating hormone deļ¬ciencies develop ļ¬rst. (ii) Hypopituitarism due to pituitary metastasis, often present with isolated ACTH deļ¬ciency. (iii) In male, symptoms because of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is often non- speciļ¬c.
Answer
D. All of above (i, ii and iii)
19
Which of the following statement is/are correct about diagnosis of adrenocorticotropic hormone deļ¬ciency (secondary adrenal insuļ¬ciency) ? (i) ACTH in patients with secondary adrenal insuļ¬ciency may be inappropriately normal. (ii) Secondary adrenal insuļ¬ciency can be rule out if morning serum cortisol is greater than 250 nmol/L. (iii) Test for secondary adrenal insuļ¬ciency should be done in all patients with a lesion in the hypothalamopituitary region.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
20
Which of the following statement is/are correct about diagnosis of central hypothyroidism ? (i) Symptoms and signs that are speciļ¬cally related to central hypothyroidism may not be as striking as in patients with overt primary hypothyroidism. (ii) Genetic testing should be done in familial cases. (iii) Central hypothyroidism is diagnosed by measurement of TSH.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about treatment of panhypopituitarism ?
Answer
C. L-thyroxine replacement does not mimic the normal small diurnal variations in free T4
22
Which of the following statement is/are correct about morbidity and mortality in panhypopituitarism ? (i) Women have a higher standardized mortality ratio than men. (ii) Patients with ACTH deļ¬ciency, receiving relatively high glucocorticoid doses, have an increased mortality. (iii) Pituitary radiotherapy is associated with high mortality.
Answer
B. All of above (i, ii and iii)
23
Which of the following statement is/are correct about lymphocytic hypophysitis in post-partum ? (i) It occurs in ļ¬rst 2 month of post-partum. (ii) Patients commonly present with symptoms of pituitary mass eļ¬ect such as headache or visual ļ¬eld changes. (iii) Patient typically have a history of obstetrical haemorrhage.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
24
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Sheehan syndrome ? (i) It is caused by infarction of the pituitary gland following obstetrical haemorrhage. (ii) Lactation failure is the commonest presentation. (iii) Pituitary injury is temporary and recovered after 5-7 years.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (ii)
25
Which of the following statement is/are correct about prolactin/prolactinoma in pregnancy ? (i) By end of third trimester, prolactin levels increased up to 10-fold relative to prepregnancy levels. (ii) In prolactinoma, monitoring of prolactin levels in pregnancy is not useful. (iii) Dopamine agonists are stopped once pregnancy is conļ¬rmed.
Answer
D. All of above (i, ii and iii)
26
Graves Triad refers to the clinical presentation of :
Answer
A. Thyroid, eye and skin
27
Autoimmune thyroid disease is characterised by the occurance of antibodies against :
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Which of the following anti-thyroid agents is preferred in the treatment of Thyroid Storm :
Answer
A. PTU
29
Amiodarone is a common drug associated with
Answer
D. Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis
30
High-grade fever, marked tachycardia, unexplained jaundice, pulmonary edema and seizures are highly suggestive of
Answer
D. Amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism
31
Consumptive hypothyroidism commonly involves increased activity of
Answer
C. Deiodinase 3
32
A defect in iodine organiļ¬cation accompanied by sensory nerve deafness is suggestive of
Answer
B. Pendred syndrome
33
Which of the following cab alter levothyroxine requirements in patients ?
Answer
D. All of the above
34
A clinical presentation of low-normal fT4 but slightly elevated TSH is suggestive of
Answer
A. Sub-clinical hypothyroidism
35
Mutations in thyroid transcription factor-2 (TTF-2) and Pax8 genes are associated with
Answer
A. Thyroid agenesis
36
Diagnostic evaluation of patients with nodular goiters consists of
Answer
D. All of the above
37
Management of non-toxic goiter includes
Answer
D. All of the above
38
Activation of RET proto-oncogene is associated with
Answer
B. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
39
Increased plasma calcitonin levels are usually seen in patients with
Answer
B. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
40
Serum thyroglobulin (Tg) levels are an excellent marker to evaluate treatment follow-up in
Answer
A. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
41
Circulating CBG levels are decreased in all except
Answer
C. Chronic hepatitis
42
Which of the following is false ?
Answer
C. Prednisolone has a more potent salt retention action than cortisol
43
Which of the following is not diagnostic of Cushing syndrome ?
Answer
C. Elevated Morning Plasma ACTH level
44
Primary pigmented micronodular Adrenal hyperplasia all are true except
Answer
A. Intrernodular tissue hyperplasia
45
Which of the following features of Cushing syndrome is considered irreversible even after successful surgical treatment ?
Answer
C. Vertebral fractures
46
Patients with AIDS may present with all except
Answer
D. Hypercortisolism with low ACTH
47
Two brothers present with hyperpigmentation, poor weight gain. One has history of neonatal hypoglycemia. Both have unstimulatable serum cortisol levels, high plasma ACTH levels and normal plasma renin activity. Likely genetic defect could be
Answer
A. MC 2 R mutation
48
Which of the following statements about corticosteroid induced adrenal suppression is correct ?
Answer
B. The risk of adrenal suppression with inhaled ļ¬uticasone increases with doses above 1000 Āµg per day for more than a year
49
Which of the following ļ¬ndings helps diļ¬erentiate glucocorticoid resistance from Cushing syndrome ?
Answer
D. Preservation or increase of bone mineral density
50
Regarding the liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry (LC- MS/MS) vs radioimmunoassay (RIA) in diagnosing adrenal insuļ¬ciency which is incorrect ?
Answer
A. LC-MS/MS provides higher cortisol values than RIA in all cases
51
A 50 year female patient was diagnosed with 2 cm adrenal incidentaloma seen on computed tomography of the abdomen. The basal attenuation is -5 Hounsļ¬eld units, and the lesion is homogenous, patient is not hypertensive but not has mild hypokalemia. Which of the following tests can be avoided ?
Answer
B. Test for pheochromocytoma
52
Which patent with Adrenal Incidentaloma needs to worked up further except
Answer
A. Clinical features of hormone excess absent and size 8 mm
53
Which of the following statements best reļ¬ects the current recommendation regarding the use of adrenal biopsy in the diagnostic work-up of patients with adrenal masses ?
Answer
B. Adrenal biopsy is recommended if there is a history of extra-adrenal malignancy
54
Which of the following adrenal tumours is most common in children and often presents as an abdominal mass ?
Answer
C. Neuroblastoma
55
Adrenal metastases occur most commonly from
Answer
C. Lung carcinoma and breast carcinoma
56
To study contrast washout-lesion attenuation measurements are done at which speciļ¬c time points of the following ? 1. Before contrast injection. 2. 15 seconds after injection. 3. 60 seconds following injection. 4. 10 or 15 minutes after contrast injection.
Answer
D. 1, 3, 4
57
Light bulb sign is classically described for
Answer
B. Pheochromocytoma on a T2 weighted MRI
58
On MRI, which imaging technique is the mainstay for evaluating solid adrenal lesions for intracellular lipid ?
Answer
C. Chemical shift imaging
59
What is the most widely used unenhanced CT attenuation threshold for diagnosing a lipid-rich adrenal adenoma ?
Answer
B. 10 HU
60
Which of the following CT washout characteristics is most consistent with ACC ?
Answer
C. Absolute washout < 60% and relative washout < 40%
61
After 10 weeks of gestation SRY expression is seen in
Answer
B. Sertoli cells
62
A 14 year old adolescent reared as male presents with gynecomastia, on examination he has penoscrotal hypospadias and cordee with bilateral palpable gonads of size 12 ml (Prader's orchidometer). There is no history of hypertension. The most appropriate ļ¬rst set of investigations would be
Answer
A. Morning Fasting Serum Testosterone, Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), Androstenedione
63
Teplizumab is approved by the US FDA for
Answer
C. Type 1 Diabetes Stage 2 to Stage 3
64
Which of the following is a US FDA approved therapy for prevention or delaying onset of type 2 diabetes in persons with multiple risk factors of diabetes ?
Answer
D. None of the above
65
According to IADPSG criteria for diagnosing gestation diabetes mellitus
Answer
A. Fasting Plasma Glucose ā„ 92 mg/dl, 1 hr PPG ā„ 180 mg/dl, 2 hr PPG ā„ 153 mg/dl
66
The following are the condition with false low value of HbA1C except
Answer
D. Iron deļ¬ciency anaemia
67
Mention the criteria to diagnose MODY
Answer
B. Tattersall Fajan Criteria
68
Macroalbuminuria is seen in which stage of diabetic nephropathy ?
Answer
B. Stage 3
69
A patient with diabetes already had minor amputation. What is the interval of follow up ?
Answer
B. 1-3 months
70
Side eļ¬ect of insulin are the following except
Answer
A. Hyperglycemia
71
Comprehensive eye examination by an ophthalmologist should done in Type I and Type II diabetes respectively at
Answer
C. Within ļ¬ve years, at the time of diagnosis
72
The Oral hypoglycemic agent which acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by liver
Answer
C. Biguanides
73
Which lipid lowering agent worsen glycemic control ?
Answer
B. Atorvastatin
74
Standard of care in Diabetes 2025 recommends that people with diabetes who have hypertension should be treated to blood pressure goals of
Answer
A. <130/80
75
In individuals with diabetes and high cardiovascular risk screening for peripheral arterial disease should be considered if duration of diabetes is
Answer
C. ā„ 10 years
76
The type of insulin used in the initial treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis is
Answer
C. Short acting insulin
77
Glycated fructosamine assay reļ¬ects the glycemic status over the prior ________ weeks.
Answer
B. 2-3 weeks
78
What is a signiļ¬cant adverse event associated with burosumab therapy in children with XLH ?
Answer
B. Increased dental abscesses
79
Which of the following gut microbiota species is positively associated with fasting glucose and HbA1c levels ?
Answer
B. Lactobacillus species
80
What is the percentage of iodine in amiodarone ?
Answer
B. 37%
81
Quarter FFM rule pertains to which concept ?
Answer
C. Lean mass reduction during obesity management
82
At what level of serum cortisol can physiological replacement of steroid be stopped in glucocorticoid induced adrenal insuļ¬ciency ?
Answer
B. 10 ug/dl
83
Which is the latest modality for diagnosing polyuria polydipsia syndrome ?
Answer
D. Urea Stimulated Copepetin
84
Which is the mutation not associated with hearing loss in Congenital Hypogonadotrophic Hypogonadism ?
Answer
D. FGFR1
85
Which is the correct order of insulin absorption rate from the injection sites ?
Answer
A. Abdomen > arms > thighs > buttocks
86
Which of the following is not a myostatin pathway inhibitor ?
Answer
D. Enobosarm
87
Pochins' sign in thyroid eye disease is
Answer
B. Increased blinking amplitude
88
Which drug is not associated with false negative dexamethasone suppression test ?
Answer
C. Fenoļ¬brate
89
Find TIRADS score of a thyroid nodule sized 1.8Ć2.1 cm, mixed cystic and solid and hyperechoic ?
Answer
B. TR2
90
Which is the mutation in congenital hypothyroidism and urogenital abnormalities ?
Answer
A. PAX8
91
Which is the FDA approved medication for MASLD ?
Answer
D. Resmetirom
92
Which is false regarding MEN 5 syndrome ?
Answer
B. Mutation in MAP gene
93
A hypertensive patient with a BMI of 26 kg/mĀ² and Hbaic-6.2% is which stage of CKM syndrome ?
Answer
C. Stage 2
94
Palmar xanthomas are characteristic of
Answer
A. Dysbetalipoproteinemia
95
High PTH, low calcium, high phosphorus, AHO phenotype, multiple hormonal resistance is seen in
Answer
C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 1a
96
Number of aminoacids in Prolactin
Answer
C. 199
97
Which of the following is high discriminatory feature of Cushing syndrome ?
Answer
C. Bruising
98
Which drug does not aļ¬ect levothyroxine absorption ?
Answer
D. Tamoxifene
99
Which among the options is not a syndromic nonmedullary thyroid carcinoma ?
Answer
D. None of the above
100
A 72 yr. old man undergoes mitral valve replacement and in postoperative period he develops atrial ļ¬brillation and is started on intravenous amiodarone. He is discharged on amiodarone 200 mg/d and on 3 months follow up, cardiologist notes a pulse rate of 116 bpm, irregularly irregular. He has lost weight and complaints of loose stools despite good appetite. He has goitre on clinical examination. TSH-<0.01 Mlu/l, FT4-5 ng/dl, FT3-7pg/ml;Thyroid radioiodine uptake-1% at 24 hrs. Which is the most appropriate treatment ?
Answer
B. Methimazole and prednisone
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