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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in General Surgery – Medical Education Previous Question Paper – 029/2024/OL

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Post NameAssistant Professor in General Surgery - Medical Education
Question Paper Code029/2024/OL
Category Code345/2023
Date of Test21 March 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Cutting of tissues by diathermy makes use of which principle?
Answer
C. Vaporization
2
What is the first line diagnostic test for echinococcal liver disease?
Answer
A. Ultrasonography
3
Nipple retraction is caused by
Answer
C. Myerholtz muscle
4
Which of the following inflammatory mediators is REDUCED in an Acute injury?
Answer
D. Insulin
5
Which of the following is NOT a pathognomonic feature of mycetoma?
Answer
B. Pain
6
A patient presents with discharge from a wound over anterior leg. The would was sustained during an accident, and has mostly healed except for this small area. What class does this belong to?
Answer
D. Class IV
7
A 34 year old male was brought to casualty with a history of being in a road traffic accident. He has breathlessness and reduced breath sounds on right side. An intercostal drain was inserted and 1 litre of blood was drained. He is found to be in shock and resuscitation is initiated. What class of shock is this patient in?
Answer
B. Class 2
8
A 50 year old female has been diagnosed with early breast cancer and is planned to undergo a breast conservation surgery with sentinel lymph node biopsy under general anaesthesia. What is the most appropriate plan for preoperative feeding?
Answer
B. Clear fluids orally upto 2 hours prior to surgery
9
Which of the following is NOT a feature of severe burns?
Answer
C. Reduced metabolism
10
Criminal nerve of Grassi is a branch of
Answer
D. Right posterior vagus
11
Which of the following diagnostic modalities has the HIGHEST typical effective dose of ionizing radiation?
Answer
A. PET CT
12
What test is used to compare two groups in a data which is numerical and not normally distributed?
Answer
D. Mann Whitney U test
13
Which statement is FALSE regarding embryonic stem cells (ESCs)?
Answer
C. Undifferentiated ESCs express major histocompatibility complexes and can provoke immune response
14
Which of the following is TRUE regarding clostridialmyonecrosis?
Answer
D. Kappa toxin causes connective tissue and blood vessel damage
15
The absolute pressure threshold in compartment syndrome is usually more than
Answer
D. 30 mmHg
16
Which of the following inherited syndromes are matched CORRECTLY with the gene implicated in them? (i) Li Fraumeni - p53 (ii) Familial Adenomatous polyposis - APC (iii) Cowden syndrome - PTEN (iv) MEN 2A - Menin
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii)
17
A 50 year old Diabetic patient presents with complaints of scrotal pain, discoloration and discharge. On examination, there is extensive tissue necrosis and patient is febrile. Which organism is most commonly implicated?
Answer
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
18
Which of the following suture material is absorbed last?
Answer
A. Silk
19
Which of the following is NOT a typical position of hemorrhoidal cushions?
Answer
B. Left posterior
20
Which of the following immunohistochemical stains is CORRECTLY matched with its cell of origin?
Answer
C. S 100 - Melanoma
21
Chromosomal anomaly in carcinoma in situ of head and neck squamous cell ca is
Answer
A. 11q, 13q, 14q
22
All of the following are the aetiological factors of communicating hydrocephalus EXCEPT
Answer
D. choroid plexus papilloma
23
Familial carotid body tumour is associated with genetic mutation of
Answer
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
24
ECG changes associated with permanent hypo parathyroidism is
Answer
B. Prolonged QT interval
25
Common causes of vocal fold palsy are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Viral infections
26
Confirmation test for thyroglossal cyst
Answer
A. USG
27
Branchial cyst develops from
Answer
B. Second Branchial cleft
28
Four legged stool fractures are described with
Answer
C. Zygoma
29
Pre malignant lesions of the orl cavity with greatest risk for malignant change
Answer
D. Speckled leukoplakia
30
Limb salvage is decided by which of the following scoring system
Answer
A. Mess
31
The following are the features of primary hyper parathyroidism EXCEPT
Answer
D. Silver beaten appearance skull
32
Indications for parathyroidectomy in secondary hyper parathyroidism (a) Persistently high serum level of intact PTH > 500 pg/mL (b) Hyperphosphataemia (serum PO4>6 mg/dL) or Hypercalcaemia (Serum Ca>2.5 mmol/L or 10 mg/dL) which is refractory to medical management (c) Estimated volume of the largest gland > 300-500 or long axis > 1 cm
Answer
D. (a), (b) and (c)
33
Wrong statement about parathyroid carcinoma is
Answer
A. Accounts for approximately 10% of all cases of primary hyper parathyroidism
34
Most brain tumours will present with one or more features related to the following triad EXCEPT
Answer
D. Generalised neurological deficit
35
All of the following are late post operative complications of tracheostomy EXCEPT
Answer
D. swallowing difficulty
36
Ludwig's angina is characterised by
Answer
D. All of the above
37
Which of the following is an optional investigation of thyroid
Answer
A. Corrected serum calcium
38
Which of the thyroid imaging modality is superior in determining pre vertebral fascia invasion
Answer
C. MRI
39
Which of the following is FALSE about papillary carcinoma thyroid
Answer
B. papillary microcarcinoma is less than 2 cm in size
40
Riedel's Thyroiditis
Answer
D. All of the above
41
Which of the following molecularly targeted therapies has meaningful clinical activity in advanced thymoma
Answer
B. Octreotide - a somatostatin analogue
42
BRCA-1 associated breast cancer are characterized by
Answer
C. Younger age of presentation
43
Both arterial and venous thrombosis occurs in
Answer
A. Antiphospholipid antibodies
44
After doing a graft repair of a thoraco abdominal aneurysm, the patient developed weakness. The most probable cause for this is
Answer
C. Discontinuation of arteria radicularis magna
45
Olivers sign is seen in
Answer
B. Aortic arch aneurysm
46
The artery commonly involved in cirsoid aneurysm
Answer
D. Superficial temporal
47
TRIVEX is a percutaneous technique of
Answer
C. Removal of vein by suction following injection of fluid
48
Popcorn type of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in the following type of Hodgkins lymphoma
Answer
A. Lymphocyte predominance
49
In Neibulowitz surgery - what is done
Answer
D. Lymph node with vein anastomosis
50
Which of the following is a cause of unilateral hyperluscent lung on chest radiograph
Answer
B. Poland syndrome
51
Left sided massive pneumothorax ECG shows all except
Answer
A. Left axis deviation
52
Hamman's sign is seen in
Answer
C. Pneumo mediastinum
53
Resting intra pleural pressure
Answer
B. -2 to -6 mm
54
Which of the following is considered as having better progress in a lady presenting with breast lump in the lower outer quadrant of the breast with axillary node involvement and diagnosed as invasive breast cancer
Answer
D. Mucinous or colloid breast cancer
55
BRCA 1 gene is located in
Answer
D. Chromosome 17
56
Kussmaul's sign is the characteristic sign seen in
Answer
D. Pericardial effusion
57
The following conditions are contra indication of thrombolytic therapy in acute limb ischemia except
Answer
A. Anaemia
58
Had field's operation is indicated in
Answer
B. Duct etasia
59
Critical limb ischemia of the limb consists of the following conditions EXCEPT
Answer
C. Parasthesia for more than two weeks
60
Which of the following is true about Mesothelioma
Answer
Question Cancelled
61
Which of the following is a false statement about hernia?
Answer
C. Reduction of hernia content is not essential for successful repair
62
According to the European Hernia Society a primary, indirect inguinal hernia with a defect of 3 cm size would be expressed as
Answer
A. PL2
63
Most common site of subphrenic abscess is?
Answer
D. Right subhepatic space
64
All of the following are true regarding Lower Oesophageal Sphincter (LOS) EXCEPT?
Answer
D. It will not allow air to escape from stomach
65
All of the following are factors that favour nonsurgical management in a case of oesophageal perforation EXCEPT?
Answer
B. Perforation of abdominal oesophagus
66
Which one of the following is the 'gold standard' for the diagnosis of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease?
Answer
C. 24 hour oesophageal pH recording
67
The best treatment option for biliary reflux gastritis following Billroth I and Billroth II gastrectomy is
Answer
C. Roux en Y gastrojejunostomy
68
H.pylori is a known cause of peptic ulceration. Which of the following statement is not true regarding it?
Answer
A. Normal duodenal mucosa can be infected by H.Pylori
69
Which of the following is true about Gastro Intestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST)?
Answer
C. Spread to lymph node is extremely rare
70
Management of bleeding oesophageal varices include all of the following EXCEPT?
Answer
A. Proton pump inhibitors
71
Preoperative imaging for Hepatocellular carcinoma includes?
Answer
D. All of the above
72
When a patient is posted for open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis, what are the indications for Choledochotomy? (i) Palpable bile duct stone (ii) Dilated CBD (iii) Jaundice or history of Jaundice
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
73
A 40 years old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Unfortunately, she developed persistent biliary discharge from the drain postoperative period. Management of this patient consist of (i) ERCP stenting (ii) MRCP (iii) Drain removal
Answer
A. (i) and (ii)
74
All of the following are causes of raised serum amylase level EXCEPT?
Answer
B. Acute appendicitis
75
All of the following are true about pseudocyst of pancreas EXCEPT?
Answer
A. It has a well-defined wall lined by epithelium
76
Regarding colorectal anastomosis which of the following is true?
Answer
D. None of the above is correct
77
In Familial Adenomatous Polyposis which of the following is not an extracolonic manifestation?
Answer
C. Acinic cell tumor of salivary gland
78
Alvarado score is used in the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Acute appendicitis
79
Which of the following is false regarding fissure in ano?
Answer
C. Forceful anal sphincter dilatation is the treatment of choice
80
All of the following are true about Acute intussusception EXCEPT
Answer
B. The sheath or outer tube is called intussusceptum
81
Which one of the following is a contraindication for intravenous pyelography (IVP)?
Answer
D. Multiple myeloma
82
Which one of the following advises is not given to a patient presented with recurrent renal stone?
Answer
C. Restricted calcium intake
83
Which type of renal cell carcinoma histopathologically shows 'perinuclear halo' and 'plant like' appearance?
Answer
D. Chromophobe cell carcinoma
84
Which hypernephromas are diagnosed by urinary exfoliative cytology?
Answer
A. Transitional cell carcinoma
85
All the following are true regarding childhood polycystic kidney disease, EXCEPT
Answer
B. Autosomal dominant
86
Investigation of choice for vesicoureteric reflux is
Answer
C. Micturating cystourethrogram
87
Which one of the following is not true about ectopia vesicae?
Answer
A. Peyronie's disease
88
Which statement is correct about transitional cell carcinoma of bladder?
Answer
B. Industrial carcinogens predisposes
89
Most common site of development of carcinoma of prostate is
Answer
A. Peripheral zone
90
72 year-old gentleman came to the casualty with urinary retention and significant back pain. Which one of the investigation is performed?
Answer
D. Serum acid phosphatase
91
Which one of the following is true about obstructive azoospermia?
Answer
C. Normal FSH and LH
92
Usual composition of prostatic calculi is
Answer
C. Calcium phosphate
93
All are true about hypospadias except,
Answer
B. Avoid surgery till puberty
94
For collecting urine specimen, most reliable method is
Answer
D. Suprapubic aspiration
95
Which one of the following investigation is not opted in a case of urethral structure?
Answer
A. MRI
96
Commonest cause of mortality in a case of carcinoma penis is
Answer
C. Hemorrhage
97
Which one of the following statement is true about undescended testis?
Answer
D. Incidence of malignancy is higher
98
Renal cell carcinoma can predispose to cause varicocele. Which statement is true?
Answer
C. Does not decompress in supine position
99
Testicular dermoid arises from _______ ?
Answer
A. Totipotent cell
100
Which one of the following is not correct regarding seminoma testis?
Answer
B. Radioresistant

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