| Post Name | Assistant Professor in General Surgery - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Department | KERALA HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION Category No : 389/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 040/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 036/2022 |
| Date of Test | 26 May 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Basic principles of Damage Control resuscitation are all except
Answer
D. Ionotropic support
2
Gas gangrene is caused by
Answer
A. Clostridium perfringens
3
The pathologic features of mycetoma are all except
Answer
D. Gangrene
4
Area of ulcer formation in Typhoid is
Answer
B. Ileum
5
Histological features of TB small bowel
Answer
C. Caseating granuloma with giant cells
6
Characters of cutting diathermy includes all except
Answer
A. High voltage current
7
Extrinsic nerve supply to stomach is from
Answer
B. Cranial Nerve X
8
The imaginary line between gall bladder fossa and middle hepatic vein
Answer
A. Cantli's line
9
Suture material with high tissue reaction is
Answer
B. Catgut
10
Stem cells can be classiļ¬ed as all except
Answer
C. Unipotent
11
Needle issued for Laparoscopic port access to create pneumoperitoneum
Answer
A. Veress needle
12
Markers for neuroendocrine neoplasm are all except
Answer
D. PSA
13
Diļ¬erent types of scientiļ¬c study are all except
Answer
C. Vertical study
14
Surgical risk score requiring operative information are all except
Answer
D. APACHE II
15
General Anesthesia triad includes all except
Answer
D. Muscle paralysis
16
Hydatid cyst is most commonly seen in
Answer
B. Liver
17
Internal Sphincter muscles of anal canal is the continuation of
Answer
B. Inner circular muscle
18
Warning signs in burns to respiratory system are all except
Answer
D. Tachycardia
19
Lymphatic drainage from breast is to all except
Answer
D. Inguinal lymph nodes
20
The threshold for fasciotomy in compartment syndrome is
Answer
A. A pressure of
21
All of the following are true about Graves disease except
Answer
C. Remissions and exacerbations are not infrequent
22
Which is true about Gorlin syndrome ? i. Associated with Squamous cell cancer of the skin. ii. Associated with basal cell cancer of the skin. iii. Associated with ameloblastoma. iv. Associated with odontogenic keratocytes. v. Associated with PTCHI mutations.
Answer
A. ii, iv, v
23
Resection of cancers of more than one third of the oral tongue are best managed by
Answer
D. Free radial forearm ļ¬ap
24
Most sensitive investigation of thyroid nodule
Answer
C. USG
25
Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by all except
Answer
D. Haematemesis
26
Which of the following salivary cancers arising in the parotid gland is most likely to metastasis to cervical nodes ?
Answer
D. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
27
False statement regarding thyroid carcinoma
Answer
B. Follicular carcinoma - Most common type of carcinoma
28
Presence of Wickham' striae in the oral cavity is a manifestation of
Answer
B. Lichen planus
29
In thyrotoxicosis, B - blockers do not control
Answer
D. Oxygen consumption
30
Sarcoidosis can present with the following manifestations except
Answer
B. Circumoral oedema
31
Which oral cancer subsite is associated with the highest rate of occult neck metastases ?
Answer
C. Oral tongue
32
Fordyce's (spots) granules in oral cavity arise from
Answer
B. Sebaceous glands
33
A 50 year old male presents with a growth in the buccal mucosa. Growth measures 3 cm in its greatest dimension. He also has multiple nodes on the ipsilateral side in the submandibular region but none of the nodes is more than 3 cm. Your line of treatement is
Answer
D. Surgical excision of growth, supra omohyoid neck dissection and post- operative radiotherapy
34
Radiological features of meningioma except
Answer
C. Sutural diastasis
35
Warthin's tumour is
Answer
A. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland
36
A 39 year old woman initially present with T1 N 0 Squamous cell cancer of the tongue and undergoes partial glossectomy and elective neck dissection (level I, II and III) Pathological examination shows no metastases in the neck. So the patient does not undergo postoperative radiation therapy. She presents 6 months later with a level I mass on the same side. FNA conļ¬rms Squamous cell cancer. Which of the following would be recommended treatment at this point ?
Answer
C. Further surgery
37
Triad of tuberous sclerosis includes all, except
Answer
D. Hydrocephalus
38
Hypocalcemia in immediate post-op period following excision of parathyroid adenoma is due to
Answer
B. Increased uptake by bones
39
Hot spot on Tc-99 is seen in which parotid gland ?
Answer
A. Adenolymphoma
40
Abb-Estlander ļ¬ap is used for
Answer
A. Lip
41
A 34 year old lady was brought to OPD with complaints of feeling of heaviness in left breast. On examination a well deļ¬ned smooth and soft lump was palpable of size 2*1 cm. All the following are true regarding breast cyst except
Answer
C. Probability of malignancy in BIRADS 4b is 10-20%
42
All are true regarding the clinical condition except
Answer
B. Absence of clavicular portion of pectoralis major
43
A 44 year old lady comes to surgery OPD with a history of purulent discharge and associated non cyclical pain in breast. Pick up the false statement regarding peri ductal mastitis
Answer
C. Chronic non-lactational inļ¬ammation of minor ducts
44
A 54 year old female on evaluation of a hard breast lump was found to have invasive ductal carcinoma. Molecular subtyping was done in the biopsy specimen. Identify the true statement.
Answer
D. Luminal A has low KI 67 index
45
All are components of RECIST criteria for breast malignancy are true except
Answer
A. Partial response > = 40% reduction in maximal diameter
46
What is the safe distance from nipple for skin and nipple sparing mastectomy ?
Answer
B. > 2 cm
47
Which of the following is not a contraindication for Breast Conservative Therapy ?
Answer
D. Three times positive surgical margins after re-excision
48
All the following are scoring systems of recurrence in CA breast except
Answer
C. NSABP
49
Incidence of buttock claudication in Leriche Syndrome
Answer
B. 30%
50
Coronary artery aneurysms are common in which of the following disorders ?
Answer
C. Kawasaki's disease
51
Miller classiļ¬cation in vascular surgery is related to
Answer
A. Aortic root replacement
52
What material forms the component of St Mary's Boot ?
Answer
C. Autologous vein
53
In coronary angiogram, stenosis of > 70% of coronary artery diameter is termed as
Answer
D. Severe
54
Which of the following methods reduces SIRS (Systemic Inļ¬ammatory Response Syndrome) in CABG ?
Answer
A. OPCAB (Oļ¬ pump)
55
All are indications for carotid endarterectomy in symptomatic patients except
Answer
B. Ipsilateral facial paralysis
56
52 year old male patient with previous history of coronary artery disease presented to casualty with sudden onset of pain and cold limb. Based on Rutherford classiļ¬cation of acute limb ischemia immediately threatened limb falls in which category ?
Answer
C. 2b
57
"Fish mouth" valve lesion in Rheumatic heart disease is seen in
Answer
Question Cancelled
58
In Valvular surgery Mitra clip is used for
Answer
B. Decreasing MR
59
Parasite associated with arterial emboli formation because of the ova
Answer
B. Taenia Echinococcus
60
Bentalls Operation is indicated for
Answer
A. Ascending Aortic aneurysm/Dissection with Aortic regurgitation
61
Most common etiological factor for failed peptic ulcer healing is
Answer
C. Persistent H Pylori infection
62
Regarding Menetrier's disease, all the following statements are correct except
Answer
D. Treatment of choice is proton pump inhibitors
63
Which one of the following facts about aorto-enteric ļ¬stula is wrong ?
Answer
B. Massive bleeding is a consistent ļ¬nding
64
Regarding Boerhaave's syndrome, which one of the following is not true ?
Answer
B. Esophagus bursts at its weakest point in upper third.
65
Squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus is associated with all the following, except
Answer
D. Barrett's esophagus
66
Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) pressure is maintained by all except
Answer
A. Negative intrathoracic pressure eļ¬ect on GE junction
67
Which one of the following is not correct about splenic artery aneurysm ?
Answer
C. Rupture common in old age
68
Spleen developed from
Answer
C. Dorsal mesogastrium
69
Which one of the following is not correct regarding annular pancreas ?
Answer
A. Ring of pancreatic tissue between D1 and D2
70
Which is the commonest type of mesenteric cyst ?
Answer
A. Chylolymphatic
71
Charcot's clinical triad includes all except
Answer
B. Vomiting
72
Which one of the following is the most common type of retroperitoneal sarcoma ?
Answer
D. Liposarcoma
73
Inferior lumbar triangle of Petit is bounded by all except
Answer
D. Sacrospinalis
74
"Retrograde strangulation" is seen in
Answer
B. Hernia - en - W
75
Which one of the following regarding colonic malignancy is not correct ?
Answer
C. Annular and tubular lesions seen on right sided colon
76
All the following statements regarding intussusception are correct, except
Answer
D. Hydrostatic reduction is a common treatment modality for adults
77
Adynamic type of intestinal obstruction typically seen in
Answer
A. Typhoid
78
Cholecystoenteric ļ¬stula is known as
Answer
B. Bouveret syndrome
79
Which one of the clinical features is not seen in haemobilia ?
Answer
D. Fever
80
Which one of the following is not correct in case of carcinoma of pancreas ?
Answer
C. Periampullary carcinoma is the most common variety.
81
Symptoms not coming under LUTS
Answer
D. Hematuria
82
Classical Triad of Symptoms is seen in
Answer
Question Cancelled
83
Urethral Syndrome which is false ?
Answer
D. Urolithiasis
84
In less than 5 year old children common cause of acute testicular pain
Answer
C. Appendage torsion
85
BXO means
Answer
D. All of the above
86
In Payronies Disease which is false ?
Answer
D. Fibrosis of the glans
87
Regarding PSA which is false statement ?
Answer
A. Signiļ¬cantly Altered by PR Examination
88
cPSA bound to alpha 1 anti chymotripsion
Answer
A. 60-90%
89
Testicular tumour markers include except
Answer
D. CEA
90
Features of a good KUB
Answer
D. All of the above
91
Medical conditions attribute to RCC except
Answer
D. Peritonial dialysis
92
Para neoplastic symptoms of RCC except
Answer
D. Hypo natraemia
93
In bladder exstrophy except
Answer
B. Male : Female ratio 1:4
94
Drugs causing acute urinary retention except
Answer
B. OHA
95
CLAM entero cysto plasty
Answer
D. All of the above
96
Three swab test is for diļ¬erentiating
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
97
In MAASTRICHT classiļ¬cation which one is false ?
Answer
D. None of the above
98
Causes of allograft rejection which one is false ?
Answer
C. Original disease recurrence in graft
99
For stapler haemarrhoidectomy/level of stapling is at
Answer
Question Cancelled
100
NOTES is done through
Answer
Question Cancelled
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.