| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Genito Urinary Surgery (Urology)- Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 046/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 335/2023, 391/2023 |
| Date of Test | 20 April 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The site of origin of Randall plaques in idiopathic stone formers is
Answer
C. Basement membrane of thin loops of Henle
2
The major pathophysiological mechanisms that contribute to Uric Acid stones are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Hyperuricemia
3
In Sarcoidosis, Hypercalciuria occurs as a result of
Answer
A. absorptive hypercalciuria
4
In Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis, which is the correct statement?
Answer
A. Profound hypocitraturia is the most important factor in stone formation
5
The microscopic appearance of Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate (Struvite) is
Answer
B. Rectangular
6
The gold standard investigation in the evaluation of Urolithiasis is
Answer
B. NCCT (Non Contrast CT)
7
The ļ¬rst line medical treatment for prevention of Cystine stones is
Answer
C. Increasing solubility of Cystine
8
Medications associated with renal calculus formation are all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Acetohydroxamic Acid
9
In Emphysematous Pyelonephritis, the classic triad of symptoms include
Answer
B. Fever, vomiting and ļ¬ank pain
10
For Uropathogenic E.coli, the following statement is true regarding P Pili
Answer
A. Strongly associated with Pyelonephritis
11
The 'Cobble Stoned' or 'Beaded Necklace' appearance seen in plain radiograph of KUB is see in
Answer
A. Emphysematous Cystitis
12
Which of the following is a non-tuberculous mycobacteria?
Answer
D. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
13
Which of the following statement about Genito Urinary Tuberculosis (GUTB) is INCORRECT?
Answer
D. Optimal timing of surgical intervention is about 1 week after initiation of medical therapy
14
Brown colour in Semen is seen
Answer
B. spinal cord injured men
15
The most common genetic cause for male infertility is
Answer
C. 47 XXY
16
Major neuropeptides that promote Erectile function include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. serotonin
17
In the management of Erectile Dysfunction, Vacuum Erection Device is most advantageous for patients with
Answer
A. Soft glans syndrome
18
Molecular basis of Recurrent ischemic priapism is
Answer
B. dysregulation
19
The electrocautery employed during TURBT may result in stimulation of which nerve
Answer
A. Obturator nerve
20
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding Lumbo dorsal fascia?
Answer
D. The posterior lamella separates erector spinae muscles from quadratus lumborum
21
Columns of Bertin are
Answer
C. extension of renal cortex between pyramids
22
The primary pacemaker cells for Ureteral peristalsis are
Answer
D. The atypical smooth muscle cells
23
The Substrate for NOS (Nitric Oxide Synthase)
Answer
A. L-Arginine
24
The deļ¬nitive kidney 'metanephros' develop at
Answer
C. week of gestation
25
During the development of male urogenital organs, which one is derived from the mesodermal (Wolļ¬an) mesonephric duct
Answer
C. Seminal vesicle
26
The Radiopharmaceutical, which is an excellent choice for evaluating patients with renal insufficiency and urinary obstruction is
Answer
A. ā¹ā¹įµTcāMAG3
27
In multipara MRI which one of the following statement is INCORRECT?
Answer
D. Dynamic Contrast - Enhanced MRI (DCE) provides clear anatomic images to assess prostate
28
In USS (Ultra Sound Scan) of kidney, an image is said to be hypoechoic if
Answer
B. it is darker than surrounding tissues
29
Which form of incontinence is usually treated medically initially?
Answer
D. Urge incontinence
30
What is the common cause of ureteral avulsion during stone basketing for upper ureteric stone?
Answer
B. Persistence attempts of stone basketing in the face of ureteral tear
31
A 34 year male has road traļ¬c accident. His vital signs are stable and there are no signiļ¬cant external injuries. CT scan revealed deep parenchymal lacerations in the right kidney. The next step is
Answer
C. Delayed imaging to evaluate the pelviccalyceal system
32
A 26 year female reports constant leakage of urine per vagina following an emergency caesarean section for foetal distress during labour. Her vitals are stable and physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates bilateral normal kidneys and bladder. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
D. Vesicouterine ļ¬stula
33
Intraoperative consultation is called by a gynaecologist for possible urinary tract injury during a diļ¬cult transabdominal hysterectomy. During inspection clear ļ¬uidis noted in the pelvis with ureteral transection on left side. What is the next step?
Answer
A. Excision and ureteroureterostomy with DJ stent
34
VVF (Vesicovaginal ļ¬stula) due to obstructed labour are
Answer
B. The most common etiology in developing countries
35
All of the following are the principles of urinary ļ¬stula repair except
Answer
C. Excision of ļ¬stula tract
36
Which of the following statement is correct regarding multichannel Urodynamics?
Answer
D. Is the most accurate diagnostic tool available for evaluation of incontinence
37
Detrusor overactivity can be diagnosed during urodynamics
Answer
A. If voluntary ļ¬lling phase contraction are seen irrespective of size
38
Which of the statement is true for pelvic ļ¬oor muscle training?
Answer
B. Pelvic ļ¬oor muscle training is eļ¬ective for treating stress, urged or mixed urinary incontinence in men and women of any age
39
The current indications for sacral neuromodulation include all except
Answer
C. Interstitial cystitis
40
The hallmark of bladder outlet obstruction is
Answer
D. High pressure and low ļ¬ow during urodynamics
41
What is the commonest form of urinary incontinence in woman aged 40 year?
Answer
A. Stress incontinence
42
Which of the following factors may result in accurate measurement of bladder compliance?
Answer
B. Presence of vesicoureteral reļ¬ux
43
The most common urodynamic ļ¬ndings in patients with Parkinson disease with lower urinary tract dysfunction is
Answer
C. Detrusor overactivity
44
In determining the anatomy of the anterior urethral structure, all of the following investigations are useful except
Answer
D. Magnetic resonance imaging
45
Which of the following statement regarding continence after reconstruction for Pelvic fracture urethral injury (PFUI) is true?
Answer
A. Continence is best addressed after a procedure to re-establish urethral continuity is established
46
Tumor syndrome strongly associated with genitourinary malginancies is
Answer
B. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer
47
All of the following statements regarding histopathological feature of spermatocytic seminoma are correct, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Abundant lymphocyte inļ¬ltration
48
"Stamped trial" is associated with
Answer
A. Prostate cancer
49
"HIVEC" is a newer technique used in the treatment of
Answer
B. Bladder cancer
50
All of the following statements regarding familial renal cell carcinoma (RCC) subtypes association is correct, Except
Answer
D. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome-losses of 3q
51
A 67 years old man presented with lower urinary tract symptoms for last 10 months. On evaluation he was diagnosed as a case of carcinoma prostate with serum PSA 8 ng/m L and Gleason score of 3+4=7. PSMA/PET-CT scan was suggestive of uptake in left lobe of prostate and left internal iliac lymph node. As per latest national comprehensive cancer network guidelines, he belongs to which stage of prostate cancer?
Answer
D. Stage IV A
52
All of the following statements regarding plasmacytoid variant of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT?
Answer
C. It is chemoresistant
53
According to the PI-RADS v2.1 sector mapping, the prostate (excluding seminal vesicles and the external urethral sphincter) has been divided into how many sectors?
Answer
B. 38
54
All of the following are well established risk factors for testis cancer, Except
Answer
A. Black race
55
A 68 years old male presented with gross painless hematuria for last 7 days. On evaluation 3.5 cm Ć 2.5 cm growth detected on base of urinary bladder. Post TURBT histopathological report suggestive of non-muscle invasive micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma. Metastatic workups were negative. The next best treatment option for him is
Answer
B. Radical cystectomy
56
All of the following prognostic models are suitable for localized renal cell carcinoma, Except:
Answer
D. MSKCC (Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center)
57
All of the following drugs are immune checkpoint inhibitors for treatment of metastatic renal cell carcinoma, Except:
Answer
A. Bevacizumab
58
LATITUDE prognostic model is most appropriate for
Answer
A. Metastatic prostate cancer
59
A 60 years old male with large (8 cm Ć 7.5 cm) right renal cell carcinoma requires occasional assistance but able to care for most of one's own needs. The Karnofsky performance Score of this patient is
Answer
C. 60
60
All of the following statements regarding focal therapy for renal tumors are true, EXCEPT:
Answer
C. Tumors treated with radio frequency ablation demonstrated >50% reduction in size in the ļ¬rst year
61
Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma originates from
Answer
C. Intercalated cells of collecting duct
62
A 55 years of old male presented with swelling over mid shaft of penis with occasional hematuria. On evaluation urothelial carcinoma of urethra with involvement of corpus cavernosum was found. No any lymph node involvement. The best ļ¬rst line treatment option for him is
Answer
C. Chemoradiotherapy Ā± consolidative surgery
63
All of the following statements regarding micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder are true, EXCEPT
Answer
A. Strong female predominance
64
Which of the following intravesical agents least commonly causes cystitis?
Answer
B. Gemcitabine
65
All of the following are indications of induction chemotherapy in carcinoma penis, except
Answer
B. More than 4 mobile lymph nodes
66
A 55-year-old male presented with ulceroproliferative growth over the penile shaft. On evaluation, it is suggestive of squamous carcinoma with involvement of Corpora Cavernosum, including Tunica albuginea. He belongs to which of the following "T" categories as per the latest TNM penile cancer staging system?
Answer
C. T3
67
All of the following statements regarding primary mediastinal non- seminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) are true, except
Answer
A. More sensitive to chemotherapy
68
All of the following are treatment options for high-risk localised prostate cancer, Except
Answer
B. Active Surveillance
69
The most common cause for acute renal failure is
Answer
A. Acute Tubular Necrosis
70
Minimal change Nephrotic Syndrome is characterized by all except
Answer
B. Pulmonary edema
71
Which is true about post obstructive diuresis?
Answer
B. Urine production of >200 mL/hr for two hours
72
The most common cause of Obstructive Uropathy is
Answer
C. BPH
73
Which of the following is unlikely to recur in transplant kidney?
Answer
A. Autosomal dominant poly cystic disease
74
Pre transplant surgical nephrectomy is indicated in the following situations except:
Answer
Question Cancelled
75
Which is not an absolute contraindication for adult renal transplantation?
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
The nerve supply of the Adrenal gland is
Answer
A. Sympathetic to medulla
77
The most reliable screening test for Primary Aldosteronism is
Answer
C. Plasma Aldosterone to Renin Ratio
78
Malignant Pheochromocytoma most commonly metastasizes to
Answer
C. Bone
79
The current gold standard functional imaging modality for evaluating Pheochromocytoma is
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
Screening tests for Cushing Syndrome all except
Answer
A. Serum ACTH
81
Absolute contraindications for paediatric renal transplant include all except
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
Brain stem death cannot be declared in which paediatric age group
Answer
A. < 2 months old
83
Regarding continuous antibiotic prophylaxis in medical mangement of antenatally diagnosed hydronephrosis
Answer
Question Cancelled
84
The most common presentation of Ureterocele in either sex is
Answer
B. Urinary infections
85
The most common cause of Priapism in children is
Answer
D. Sickle cell disease
86
The most reliable clinical sign of Torsion Testes is
Answer
C. Absent Cremasteric reļ¬ex
87
The term Fetal Uropathy relates to
Answer
C. Posterior Urethral Valve
88
Regarding adolescent Varicocele: indications for surgery include all except
Answer
C. Grade iii variocele
89
Clinical ļ¬ndings that may suggest presence of DSD in a boy include the following except
Answer
D. Inguinal hernia before six months of age
90
Pediatric patients with uncomplicated ureteral stones less than 10 mm are best managed with
Answer
A. Alpha blockers
91
Which is not a criterion in International Prostate Symptom Score?
Answer
D. Dysuria
92
Which investigation is not recommended for assessment of bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms?
Answer
D. USS Abdomen and Pelvis
93
Which receptor is not a mediator of lower urinary tract symptoms?
Answer
C. Alpha1c
94
Non-invasive tests to diagnose bladder outlet obstruction in patients with lower urinary tract symptoms includes ultrasound estimation of all except
Answer
B. Transition zone volume
95
Which is the strongest predictor of BPH progression?
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
Favourable factors for successful trial without catheter are all of the following except
Answer
C. Drained volume >1000 MI
97
The alpha blocker with least adverse eļ¬ect on ejaculatory function is
Answer
B. Alfuzocin
98
The treatment of choice for male patients with moderate to severe LUTS due to BPH and enlarged prostate is
Answer
B. Combining Alpha blockers with 5 Alpha Reductase Inhibitors
99
Which of the following is not a contraindication for Laproscopic surgery?
Answer
D. Morbid obesity
100
The pnemo peritoneum pressure selected for performing Robotic and Laparoscopic procedures is
Answer
C. 15 mm Hg
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