| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Genito Urinary Surgery (Urology) - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 113/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 009/2025 |
| Date of Test | 14 October 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement is wrong?
Answer
D. Calcium absorption mainly occur in colon
2
Which of the following type of RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS (RTA) is most frequently associated with renal stone disease?
Answer
A. RTA TYPE I
3
Most common organism associated with infection stone is
Answer
A. Proteus Mirabilis
4
Gold standard investigation for diagnosis of ureteric stone is
Answer
B. Non Contrast CT Scan (NCCT)
5
Regarding the shape of crystals, which combination is WRONG?
Answer
D. Uric acid - Needle Shaped
6
In a male patient with renal stone disease, 24 hour urine sample shows the following values. Which value is NOT in normal range?
Answer
C. Oxalate 80 mg
7
Which of the following factors negatively aļ¬ect the success of extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy? (a) cystine stone (b) stone attenuation more than 1000 (c) skin to stone distance >10 cm (d) stone in a horse shoe kidney (e) complete patient immobility (f) stone in lower calyx long and narrow infundibulam
Answer
A. All are correct
8
Regarding the Matrix stone of kidney, which statement is wrong?
Answer
A. ESWL is the best treatment
9
The principal neurotransmitter released from NANC neurones which mediate penile erection is
Answer
B. Nitric oxide
10
All of the following drugs are used to produce pharmacologically induced penile erection by intra cavernosal injection EXCEPT
Answer
A. Phenylephrine
11
Which of the following is a Proximal shunt done for managing priapism?
Answer
C. Quackle's shunt
12
In male infertility evaluation, Tunel Assay is done to
Answer
C. Assess DNA fragmentation
13
In semen analysis, the term Teratospermia means
Answer
A. Over abundance of abnormal forms
14
Michaelis - Gutman bodies are seen in
Answer
C. Malakoplakia
15
Which drug abuse can lead to cystitis?
Answer
B. Ketamine
16
Which antibiotic is not suitable (contraindicated) in pregnancy?
Answer
C. Tetracycline
17
Most cases of Fournier's gangrene is caused by
Answer
D. Mixed bacterial ļ¬ora
18
In advanced tuberculosis of genito urinary system, Thimble bladder is deļ¬ned as when bladder capacity is reduced to
Answer
A. Less than 20 ml
19
A 17 year male presented in the out patient department with hematuria after workout in a gym, there were no other symptoms. Which of the following investigation conļ¬rms his condition?
Answer
B. microscopic presence of erythrocytes
20
An exposure of 16 mSv at 1 foot from the source of radiation would be how much at 4 feet from the source?
Answer
C. 1 mSv
21
Functional sequences in multiparametric MRI of prostate includes all except
Answer
D. T2 triplanar images
22
Position emission tomography (PET) is poor investigation to image prostate malignancy because
Answer
D. none of the above
23
Following technique used guide wire of suprapubic catheter placement
Answer
C. seldinger
24
In intrarenal collecting system
Answer
B. compound calyces are most common in the upper pole
25
Comparing Nitinol wire with stainless steel for stone basket all are true for Nitinol except
Answer
D. easily kinkable
26
All are true regarding Double-J stents except
Answer
B. stent diameter rather than length is associated with more severe symptoms
27
Following venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is safe in renal insuļ¬ciency
Answer
B. low-dose unfractionated heparin
28
Monopolar and Bipolar cautery diļ¬ers in that
Answer
A. monopolar require a dispersive electrode
29
In following scenario, cystogram is not warranted
Answer
B. pelvic fracture with microscopic hematuria
30
All except one provide useful information in determining the anatomy of urethral stricture
Answer
A. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
31
Regarding direct visual internal urethrotomy all are false except
Answer
D. It may cause erectile dysfunction (ED)
32
Best treatment for a short, mid ureter ureteral contusion caused by a low-velocity bullet?
Answer
B. Double J stent placement
33
Disadvantages of ventral (posterior wall) urethroplasty are
Answer
C. both (1) and (2)
34
According to IDSA and AUA guidelines Asymptomatic Bacteriuria should be treated in
Answer
D. Pregnant women
35
All the following statements are true in Urolithiasis cases in pregnancy EXCEPT
Answer
D. Decrease in the excretion of citrate and magnesium
36
Most common acquired ļ¬stula of the urinary tract
Answer
B. Vesicovaginal ļ¬stula
37
The York Mason procedure in the management of Recto Urethral Fistula (RUF) is
Answer
A. Trans rectal, transsphincteric approach for repair of recto urethral ļ¬stual
38
Which of the following features is LEAST commonly associated with Autonomic Dysreļ¬exia
Answer
C. tachycardia
39
Bashful Bladder seen in young men is characterized by
Answer
A. low pressure and low ļ¬ow voiding
40
Therapy for the Detrusor Sphincter Dyssynergia (DSD) include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Urethral stent
41
According to ICS which of the following is NOT a type of incontinence
Answer
C. overļ¬ow incontinence
42
Which of the following may result in inaccurate measurement of Bladder Compliance?
Answer
B. Presence of VUR
43
MUCP (Maximum Urethral Closure Pressure) is
Answer
A. Maximum diļ¬erence between the urethral pressure and intra vesical pressure
44
The strongest independent risk factor for urinary incontinence in men
Answer
B. Age
45
The gold standard urodynamics study in patients with Neurogenic Lower Urinary Tract Dysfunction is (NLUD)
Answer
A. Video UDS
46
HIF-1 represents an important general oxygen-sensing mechanism underlying the adaptation of cancer cells to the environment and is manifest in a number of ways. HIF-1 binding can activate vasculogenic mimicry through activation of the following genes
Answer
C. FGFR
47
Monoclonal antibody that bind to PD-1(Programmed death-1 (PD-1) on activated T cells
Answer
B. Pembrolizumab
48
All are true about clear cell papillary tumor of kidney except
Answer
D. poor prognosis
49
Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) in COWDENS syndrome is most often
Answer
B. papillary
50
All are prognostic factors in Leibovich score/model (2003) of Clear Cell RCC except
Answer
C. Nodal status
51
As per KEYNOTE 564 trial, adjuvant pembrolizumab is oļ¬ered to clear cell RCC patients in all the risk groups except
Answer
D. PT1 grade 1 N0M0
52
All are true about Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumor (PNET) of Kidney except
Answer
B. Hypervascular pattern is typical
53
In Carcinoma Bladder all belong to intermediate risk as per American Urological Association Risk Stratiļ¬cation and Therapeutic Interventions except
Answer
D. Recurrent High Grade, Ta
54
Perform a secound TURB for Bladder tumour in all the following situations except
Answer
D. Ta LG/G1 tumours
55
A super-extended Lymph Node Dissection in Carcinoma bladder extends cranially upto the level of
Answer
A. inferior mesenteric
56
First-line treatment option for metastatic carcinoma urinary bladder, if eligible for combination therapy
Answer
B. Enfortumab vedotin with pembrolizumab
57
Factors associated with urethral recurrence after Radical Cystectomy in Carcinoma Bladder include all except
Answer
C. size of the tumour
58
All are true about teratoma except
Answer
B. never transform into a somatic malignancy
59
Tumour limited to testis and epididymis with vascular/lymphatic invasion or tumor extending through tunica albuginea with involvement of tunica vaginalis is which pT stage in TNM staging
Answer
B. pT2
60
All are treatment options for Stage IB (pT2-pT4) : high risk non- seminoma germ cell tumour of the testis except
Answer
D. adjuvant radiotherapy
61
All are Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) associated subtypes of penile carcinoma except
Answer
A. Verrucous
62
Modiļ¬ed ILND usually includes all except
Answer
B. transposition of the sartorius muscle
63
Carcinoma Penis invading into corpus spongiosum (either glans or ventral shaft) with urethra invasion is which T stage
Answer
B. T2
64
Sources of error in PSA value assessment includes all except
Answer
A. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE)
65
The main arterial supply of Prostate is from
Answer
B. inferior vesical artery
66
Standard treatment options for a patient with intermediate-risk disease Carcinoma Prostate includes all except
Answer
D. Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT) monotherapy
67
Most common site of positive margins after Radical Prostatectomy for Carcinoma Prostate is
Answer
D. Apex
68
A patient with T2b prostate cancer with a PSA of 18 ng/ml, with Grade group 3 on biopsy with 7/12 cores positive for prostate cancer comes under which NCCN risk group
Answer
B. Unfavorable intermediate
69
Fetal intervention for obstructive uropathy secondary to posterior urethral valves has been shown to
Answer
C. Lead to improved pulmonary function in the neonate
70
A 6-month-old child with a history of posterior urethral valves has a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL. He has a dilated, thick-walled bladder and hydroureteronephrosis on sonography and evidence of dilating vesicoureteral reļ¬ux with no remnant valves on voiding cystourethrography. Which of the following BEST explains the renal impairment noted in this child?
Answer
A. Increased intravesical storage pressures transmitted to the ureter, renal pelvis and glomerular units causing architectural and functional changes
71
A 3-year-old circumcised boy presents with urinary incontinence, stranguria and occasional afebrile urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound reveals moderate bilateral hydroureteronephrosis. The next most appropriate urological evaluation for this child would be
Answer
D. Voiding cystourethrogram
72
Loop diuretics are of beneļ¬t in the management of AKI due to
Answer
B. Decreased metabolic demand
73
A patient with AKI after partial nephrectomy has a serum potassium of 6.9 mEq/L and widening of the QRS complex on electrocardiogram (ECG). The initial step in management should be
Answer
A. Intravenous (IV) calcium
74
How does one perform a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST)?
Answer
D. Have the patient take 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11 PM and measure serum cortisol the next morning
75
With regard to preoperative pheochromocytoma blockade, Ī²-blockers should be startedĪ±
Answer
C. To control tachycardia and arrhythmias that can result upon initiation of Ī± blockade
76
The most common hormone secreted by adrenocortical carcinoma is
Answer
C. Cortisol
77
The Weiss criteria for identifying malignant adrenal tumors should be applied with caution in tumors with
Answer
D. Oncolytic features
78
A 62-year-old man presents for postoperative surveillance of renal cell carcinoma. Three years prior, a right nephrectomy was performed for T2N0M0 grade III clear cell renal cell carcinoma. A current abdominal CT scan reveals a 3.5- cm right adrenal mass with an average attenuation of 32 HU prior to contrast administration. A CT washout study is performed, and absolute percent washout is calculated to be 52%. No other suspicious lesions are noted within the chest, abdomen, or pelvis. The next step in management should be
Answer
C. Assessment of the adrenal tumor's functional status
79
When the patient is positioned in the modiļ¬ed ļ¬ank position, the risk of developing rhabdomyolysis from ļ¬ank pressure is increased by all of the following EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Age less than 45 years
80
Regarding laparoscopic radical nephrectomy, the following statement is CORRECT
Answer
C. Clips alone are contraindicated for the ligation of the renal artery
81
What is the primary advantage of hypothermic machine perfusion (HMP) compared to static cold storage (SCS) for deceased donor kidneys?
Answer
D. HMP reduces the risk of delayed graft function (DGF)
82
Which of the following statements best describes the characteristic stone ablation eļ¬ect of the Thulium Fibre Laser (TFL) and its recommended starting settings for treating ureteral stones?
Answer
B. TFL tends to ablate stones into ļ¬ne, small particles with minimal retropulsion, with typical starting settings for ureteral stones being 0.6 J at 6 Hz (3.6 W) in short pulse (SP) duration
83
Advantages of laparoscopic management of an intraabdominal testis include all of the following EXCEPT (a) More accurately assesses the presence or absence, viability and anatomy of the testis compared with radiographic imaging (b) Reduces the risk of damage to the testis (c) Enhances surgical exposure, lighting and magniļ¬cation (d) Allows a greater degree of proximal dissection of the spermatic vessels
Answer
B. (b)
84
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the external genitalia development? (a) The appearance of the external genitalia is similar in male and female embryos until the 8th week (b) The external genital appearance of males who are deļ¬cient in 5 -reductase is similar to that of females (c) In males, the formation of distal glandular urethra may occur by the fusion of urethral folds proximally and the ingrowth of ectodermal cells distally (d) In females, the urethral folds become the labia majora and the labioscrotal folds become the labia minora
Answer
C. (a), (b) and (c)
85
All of the following statements about the pediatric abdominal examination are FALSE EXCEPT (a) renal pathology is the source of as many as two-thirds of neonatal abdominal masses (b) abdominal distention at birth or shortly afterward suggests either obstruction or perforation of the gastrointestinal tract (c) the abdominal wall is normally strong, especially in infants with hydronephrosis (d) a solid ļ¬ank mass may be due to renal venous thrombosis
Answer
B. (a), (b) and (d)
86
All of the following statements about postnatal ultrasound ļ¬ndings of hydronephrosis are true EXCEPT (a) hydronephrosis may be obstructive or non obstructive (b) hydronephrosis is always an indication of obstruction (c) hydronephrosis can be more fully evaluated by functional imaging to identify obstruction (d) hydronephrotic pelvicalyceal system can be diļ¬erentiated from renal cysts based on whether the ļ¬uid spaces do not or do communicate
Answer
D. (b)
87
Which of the following statements is true regarding dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) renal scan? (a) The maximum sensitivity for detection of acute pyelonephritis is within 1 week from the onset of symptoms (b) The risk of an abnormal scan increases with increased grades of vesicoureteral reļ¬ux (VUR) (c) The estimated radiation dose is approximately 1 mSv (d) DMSA is bound to the glomerular basement membrane, providing excellent cortical imaging but slow excretion
Answer
C. (a), (b) and (c)
88
Which of the following are true? (a) The most common cause of perioperative fever in children involves an infectious etiology, which is most commonly a viral upper respiratory tract infection (b) Preoperative urine cultures should be obtained preoperatively if a sterilized ļ¬eld is required and can be obtained (c) Blood transfusion can result in a nonspeciļ¬c fever upto 1 week after transfusion (d) Preoperative UTI, especially if recurrent, is recognized as a high-risk factor for postoperative infection
Answer
D. all of the above
89
Which of the following is false regarding peritoneal access via the umbilicus? (a) A fascial hernia is rarely identiļ¬ed (b) Due to the fascial support at the umbilicus, a port site in this location does not usually require closure (c) The umbilicus is a reliable indicator of the location of the aortic bifurcation, which will lie superior to the umbilicus (d) Trendelenburg positioning does not alter the relation between the umbilicus and the aortic bifurcation
Answer
D. all of the above
90
Which of the following statements is false in regard to secondary VUR? (a) The most common cause of anatomic bladder obstruction in the pediatric population is posterior urethral valves and VUR is present in a great majority of these children (b) Anatomic obstruction of the bladder is a common cause of secondary VUR in female patients (c) Patients with neurofunctional etiology for secondary VUR beneļ¬t from immediate surgical intervention to try to correct VUR (d) A sacral dimple or hairy patch on the lower back is not a signiļ¬cant ļ¬nding in regard to the evaluation and treatment of VUR
Answer
B. (b), (c) and (d)
91
A newborn infant with a history of antenatal hydronephrosis and oligohydramnios is evaluated with a renal/bladder ultrasound and voiding cystourethrogram. All of the following are characteristic ļ¬ndings of posterior urethral valves EXCEPT (a) hypertrophy and apparent elevation of the bladder neck (b) multiple bladder diverticula (c) bladder perforation with small amount of urinary extravasation causing ascites (d) rupture of an upper pole calyceal fornix causing distortion of the renal capsule
Answer
B. (c)
92
All of the following is thought to reduce the likelihood for ļ¬stula development after hypospadias surgery EXCEPT (a) 2-layer closure of the neourethra (b) use of monoļ¬lament sutures for urethroplasty (c) approximation of the corpus spongiosum over the neourethra (d) placement of a dartos ļ¬ap over the neourethra
Answer
B. (c)
93
Which of the following statements regarding the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is false? (a) Moderate symptom severity is deļ¬ned as a score from 12 to 22 points (b) The IPSS score addresses voiding and storage symptoms as well as questions regarding incontinence (c) Quantitative symptom scores in BPH are not as important as are objective measures such as a ļ¬ow rate recording (d) The IPSS score has been translated and validated in many languages
Answer
C. (a), (b) and (c)
94
Risk factors for development of the TUR syndrome include (a) prostate volume less than 45 g (b) failure to use isotonic, iso-osmolar irrigating solution and the bipolar electroresection system (c) underlying hepatic dysfunction (d) irrigating ļ¬uid above the patient should be ideal be >60 cm
Answer
D. (b)
95
With regard to laser safety, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Eye protection is required for the surgeon only (b) Eye protection is required only when a video camera is not used during the case (c) All laser energy is readily absorbed by air/irrigating ļ¬uid, making it safe to use in the OR (d) All windows or wall opening from the operating room (OR) must be covered
Answer
A. (d)
96
Which of the following is TRUE of bipolar compared with monopolar TURP? (a) In a meta-analysis of patients undergoing bipolar TURP, authors concluded that by treating 50 patients with bipolar TURP, one case of TUR syndrome could be prevented (b) A relative risk of 0.53 for blood transfusion with bipolar resection was found in meta-analysis (c) Improved visualization during bipolar TURP may also lead to a decrease in capsular perforations and operating time (d) Late complications such as bladder neck contracture and need for retreatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) do not appear to be much diļ¬erent from those found with conventional TURP
Answer
D. all of the above
97
The contraindications to simple prostatectomy include (a) bladder diverticulum (b) large bladder calculi secondary to obstruction (c) recurrent urinary tract infection (d) acture urinary retention
Answer
D. none of the above
98
Indication of surgery in BPE (a) bladder diverticulum (b) bladder calculi (c) recurrent urinary tract infection (d) acute urinary retention
Answer
B. (b), (c) and (d)
99
Which of the following strategies should be part of watchful waiting management? (a) Regular patient monitoring (b) Education and reassurance (c) Fluid management (d) Concurrent medication adjustment
Answer
D. all of the above
100
Which of the following is considered a possible biologic eļ¬ect of phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5is) on the lower urinary tract? (a) Relaxation of smooth muscle at the level of the prostate and bladder neck (b) Decreased blood ļ¬ow at the level of the bladder and prostate resulting in decreased local inļ¬ammation (c) Increased activity of aļ¬erent nerves in the bladder wall (d) Inhibition of the 5 -reductase type 2 isoenzyme at the level of the prostate
Answer
A. (a)
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