| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Hotel Management - Paper - I - Kerala Collegiate Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 101/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 570/2024 |
| Date of Test | 10 September 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is NOT an element of organizational climate?
Answer
D. Business model
2
Which of the following is a primary driver of organizational change?
Answer
B. Changes in the external environment
3
Which of the following is a manager's responsibility in the "controlling" function of management?
Answer
C. Monitoring and correcting deviations from plans or objectives
4
Which theory was developed to measure and assess the organizational climate?
Answer
C. Litwin and Stringer's Organizational Climate Questionnaire
5
Which of the following is an example of a "bounded rationality" in decision-making?
Answer
B. Making a decision with incomplete information due to time or cognitive limitations
6
In a "matrix structure" of organizational structure, employees report to :
Answer
D. A functional manager and a project or product manager
7
In the Conļ¬ict Resolution Process, which of the following is the ļ¬rst step?
Answer
B. Understanding and diagnosing the cause of the conļ¬ict
8
Which of the following is a key feature of the performance management process of human resources in organizations?
Answer
A. Setting clear performance expectations and goals
9
Which of the following is a key element in understanding Behavioral Dynamics within organizations?
Answer
B. Employee motivation, leadership styles and communication patterns
10
Which of the following best describes the impact of organizational culture on Behavioral Dynamics within an organization?
Answer
B. Organizational culture directly inļ¬uences the norms, values, and behaviors that guide how employees interact with one another
11
Which of the following is a key aspect of 'cost control' in food and beverage operations?
Answer
A. Minimizing waste, portion control and monitoring food inventory
12
What is the signiļ¬cance of 'The Contribution Margin' in Food and Beverage Management?
Answer
C. It reļ¬ects the amount of proļ¬t a restaurant makes after covering variable costs
13
What is the term used for the percentage of Rooms Sold in relation to the total number of available rooms in a hotel?
Answer
B. Occupancy rate
14
Which of the following best describes Room Inventory Management in Accommodation Operations?
Answer
D. Tracking and managing room availability and reservation systems
15
What does the term "Carbon Footprint" refer to in hospitality management?
Answer
B. The total amount of greenhouse gases emitted by the hotel's operations
16
What is the term used for 'the practice of reusing and recycling materials' to minimize waste in a hotel's operations?
Answer
A. Waste diversion
17
Which of the following is a potential source of funding for a hospitality entrepreneur?
Answer
D. All of the above
18
In the context of hospitality entrepreneurship, what is a Unique Selling Proposition (USP)?
Answer
C. A feature that diļ¬erentiates a business from its competitors
19
Which of the following is a major requirement under the 'Indian Shops and Establishments Act' for businesses operating in the hospitality sector?
Answer
B. Fixing the working hours and holiday regulations for employees
20
Which of the following is required under the 'Indian Liquor License Act' for hotels that wish to serve alcohol?
Answer
A. A license from the local excise department
21
Which among the following is not a type of market?
Answer
D. Local
22
Intangibility, ownership, perishability are the characteristics of ________ marketing.
Answer
A. Service
23
Which among the following is a tangible dominant?
Answer
D. Cosmetics
24
Pick the one which is not in the 7 P's of Marketing Mix
Answer
D. Policy
25
Branding is a component of
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
Guarantees, business cards and signage are found in
Answer
C. Physical evidence
27
Guest relations, quality control and personal selling are the elements of ________ marketing.
Answer
B. Internal
28
Which among the following is not a segment of marketing?
Answer
D. Portable
29
Men, Money and Machine in marketing environment are
Answer
D. Internal factor
30
Political, Social and Cultural are the factors of ____________ environment.
Answer
C. Macro
31
Visitation days is a type of information needed in
Answer
B. Visitor marketing information
32
Competitive information is gathered to analyse
Answer
C. Product mix
33
Which among the following is a contact method? A. Online B. Personal C. Mail D. Survey
Answer
A. A, B, C
34
They collect data and store in one accessible location
Answer
B. Data warehouse
35
Which among the following is the best source to collect descriptive information?
Answer
B. Survey research
36
Mystery shoppers are used in
Answer
A. All type of operations
37
The following are used in guest personal information A. Phone number B. Method of payment C. Address D. Laundry information
Answer
A. A, B, C
38
Guest comment card are always found on
Answer
B. Dining room table
39
Which among the following is competitive information?
Answer
C. Customer mix
40
Choose the odd one out
Answer
D. Public parks
41
Which of the following Revenue Management output contains the sell rates for rooms and the number of rooms authorized and sold in marketing programs with special rates?
Answer
B. Weekly Recap Report
42
The concept of Yield Management was originated in which of the following industries?
Answer
A. Airlines
43
Which of the following Revenue Management strategy involves various methods of controlling and limiting room supply?
Answer
A. Capacity Management
44
Formula to calculate Overstay Percentage is
Answer
B. (Total Number of Overstays in a speciļ¬c duration Ć· Total number of check- outs in that speciļ¬c duration) Ć 100
45
Which of the following approach for determining room rate considers operating expenses, room sales and a pre-desired return on investment?
Answer
C. Hubbart Formula Approach
46
When we deduct Marginal Cost from Rack Rate, we arrive at
Answer
B. Contribution Margin
47
Formula to calculate RevPAR is
Answer
C. Occupancy Percentage Ć ADR
48
Formula to calculate Weighted Average Contribution Margin Ratio (CMRw) is
Answer
D. (Total Non Room Revenue ā Total Non Room Revenue Center Variable Costs) Ć· Total Non Room Revenue
49
A hotel has 400 rooms (all double bedded). The rack rate for Single Occupied room is Rs. 6,000/- and that of Double Occupied Room is Rs. 8,000/-. On a particular day, the Hotel had a House Count of 500 and the number of rooms sold were 320. Discount given to all the Double Occupied rooms were 20% on Rack Rate and 10% discount on Rack Rate were given to all the Single Occupied rooms. Calculate the Multiple Occupancy Percentage on that day.
Answer
B. 56.25%
50
A hotel has 200 rooms (all twin bedded). The rack rate for single occupied room is Rs. 3,000/- and that of double occupied room is Rs. 4,000/-. On a particular day, the hotel had a full house with a house count of 310. 10% Discount was given to all the Single Occupied rooms and 15% Discount was given to all the double occupied rooms. Calculate the RevPAR for that day.
Answer
C. Rs. 3085
51
Looking for patterns of purchase, behaviour and attitude in data is called :
Answer
B. Data mining
52
The function that links an organisations to its market through the gathering of Information is
Answer
C. Marketing Research
53
In-connection to the External Source of Secondary data, Syndicate research studies are studies available to any subscriber or buyer. One such important study is popularly called as 'NRS' in short. This study is conducted every three to four years. This study covers a large national sample and measures the readership of newspapers and magazine in great details. It also covers demographics and consumption patterns of household consumer goods. It is a frequently quoted study in advertisements and news reports. It is one of the source used by advertisers to select the media in which to place their advertisement. 'NRS' stands for
Answer
B. National Readership Survey
54
Which of the following is NOT the functional Role of Secondary Data Research (Secondary Research Task) in marketing Research
Answer
D. Deļ¬ned Target Population (A speciļ¬c group of people or objects for which questions can be asked or observations made to develop structures and information)
55
In the marketing Research Process while deciding the Budget and cost estimation, there are three basic parameters which provides an estimate of how much a study is going to cost. Which of the following is not the basic parameters?
Answer
A. Sample Frame
56
Multivariate analysis is the analysis of the simultaneous relationship among three or more phenomena. While in univariate analysis, the focus is mainly on
Answer
A. Level (average) and distribution (variance) of the phenomenon
57
The use of some form of panel or focus group is one of the most expensive methods of acquiring primary data and yet, if managed properly, the data produced may be the most useful. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the above discussions? i. The group work by bringing together customers and suppliers etc. ii. As the members of the group gain in conļ¬dence they are likely to provide much in-depth information about their true feelings for a product/service iii. The use of focus group has growth sharply in recent years iv. The concept now being used not only by retailers but also by political parties
Answer
A. i, ii, iii and iv
58
Multivariate classiļ¬cation method/s is/are based on which of the following judgement/s i. Are some of the variables dependent on others? ii. If yes, how many variables are dependent? iii. Are the data qualitative (nonmetric) or quantitative (metric)
Answer
B. i, ii and iii
59
A cross-sectional design study is concerned with a sample of elements from a given population. Thus, it may deal with households, dealers, retail store, or other entities. Data on a number of characteristics from the sample elements are collected and analysed. Cross sectional studies are of following type i. Field study ii. Surveys iii. Casual Design iv. Natural experiments
Answer
C. i, ii
60
If two or more variables are analysed together, it may be necessary to spell out the relationship between the two variables. The concept of dependent and independent variables is useful in spelling out the relationship. In a consumer research questionnaire, which of the following is/are example/s of dependent variable : Example i : Satisfaction with the Brands, which may depend on taste (if it is a food brand), and availability Example ii : The quantity of a product bought, a dependent variable, which depends on family size and household income.
Answer
A. both i and ii
61
Which of the following best describes the role of Managerial Economics?
Answer
B. To apply economic concepts for decision-making in business management
62
The Law of Demand states that, other things being equal :
Answer
C. Demand decreases when prices rise
63
In perfect competition, the relationship between Average Revenue (AR) and Marginal Revenue (MR) is
Answer
C. AR = MR
64
The point at which Total Product (TP) is maximum and Marginal Product (MP) becomes zero, indicates :
Answer
C. End of Stage I of production
65
Which cost concept is most relevant for shut-down decisions of a ļ¬rm in the short run?
Answer
A. Variable cost
66
The Delphi method of demand forecasting relies on :
Answer
B. Repeated surveys of expert opinions until consensus is reached
67
In price discrimination (third-degree), the ļ¬rm :
Answer
B. Charges diļ¬erent prices to diļ¬erent groups based on elasticity
68
At the break-even point :
Answer
A. Total revenue = Total cost
69
The kinked demand curve theory of oligopoly suggests :
Answer
A. Prices are rigid due to ļ¬rms matching price decreases but not price increases
70
When economies of scale are exhausted and diseconomies begin, the Long-Run Average Cost (LAC) curve :
Answer
C. Becomes U-shaped with a rising portion
71
Which of the following is a deļ¬ning feature of a learning organization?
Answer
C. Continuous improvement through shared knowledge and collaboration
72
The ļ¬rst step in HR planning generally involves :
Answer
B. Forecasting demand and supply of human resources
73
Job evaluation is primarily used to
Answer
B. Determine the relative worth of jobs within an organization
74
Which of the following is considered a core action area of HRP in modern organizations?
Answer
B. Workforce succession planning and talent pipeline management
75
A key challenge organizations face in HR planning is :
Answer
B. Diļ¬culty in predicting long-term labor market trends
76
Which indicator best measures HR planning eļ¬ectiveness in addressing skill gaps?
Answer
A. Ratio of internal promotions to external hires
77
Under Section 135 of the Indian Companies Act, CSR is mandatory for companies meeting certain criteria. Which of the following is NOT a valid CSR activity?
Answer
C. Activities exclusively beneļ¬tting employees of the company
78
Competency mapping is best deļ¬ned as :
Answer
B. Identifying knowledge, skills and attributes required to perform a role eļ¬ectively
79
Which of the following is a distinct advantage of assessment centres in HRD?
Answer
A. They provide multi-dimensional evaluation through simulations and role plays
80
According to T.V. Rao (father of HRD in India), HRD is mainly concerned with :
Answer
C. Developing competencies, motivation and culture for eļ¬ective performance
81
Which of the following is NOT a function of sales management?
Answer
C. Manufacturing
82
Which of the following correctly orders the stages of the AIDA selling model?
Answer
A. Attention, Interest, Desire, Action, Satisfaction
83
What is the primary purpose of control in sales management?
Answer
B. To ensure adherence to the predetermined sales plan and set of goals
84
Which of these activities are part of handling objections in the selling process? i. Listening carefully to the customer's concerns. ii. Trying to dismiss customer concerns without discussion. iii. Providing clariļ¬cations and additional information based on customer objections. iv. Moving to closing without addressing concerns.
Answer
A. i and iii only
85
Which of the following are key reasons why control of a sales force is important? i. Helps ensure that sales activities are aligned with organizational goals. ii. Enables timely identiļ¬cation and correction of deviations from plans. iii. Helps in evaluating salespeople's performance. iv. Reduces competition among sales people.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii
86
In sales planning, which of the following is LEAST consistent with the principle of a long-term sustainability?
Answer
C. Prioritizing aggressive short-term sales even if it damages customer trust
87
Which of the following are recognized methods of controlling a sales force? i. Sales volume analysis. ii. Expense control and budget monitoring. iii. Activity and call reports. iv. Employee canteen satisfaction surveys.
Answer
D. i, ii and iii
88
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of steps in the personal selling process?
Answer
B. Prospecting ā Presentation ā Handling objections ā Closing ā Follow-up
89
Which of the following is NOT part of the sales planning process according to the text?
Answer
C. Randomly assigning sales territories without analysis
90
A well-planned sales eļ¬ort results in : i. Improved customer coverage ii. Reduced selling costs iii. Increased job dissatisfaction iv. Better forecasting accuracy.
Answer
A. i, ii and iv
91
Which of the following best explains the principle of "Equal Pay of Equal Work" in India?
Answer
A. Men and women performing the same or substantially similar work must receive the same remuneration
92
Under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (as amended), which of the following is CORRECT?
Answer
D. Children below 14 years are prohibited from employment in all occupations and processes except assisting in family enterprises outside school hours/vacations
93
Under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following rights are guaranteed? a. Freedom of speech and expression. b. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms. c. Freedom to form associations or unions or cooperative societies. d. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India. e. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India. f. Freedom to practice only certain profession
Answer
C. a, b, c, d, e only
94
Equality before law applies to :
Answer
C. All persons (citizens and non-citizens)
95
According to Section 4 of the Maternity Beneļ¬t Act, 1961, for how long is it unlawful to employ a woman in any establishment immediately after delivery, miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy?
Answer
B. Six weeks
96
Ravi and Ananya were employed in Sunrise Pvt. Ltd. as data analysts, performing the same work. Ravi was paid more than Ananya. The employer reduced Ravi's salary to comply with Equal Remuneration Act. Which of the following step(s) is NOT appropriate?
Answer
D. All of the above
97
A piece-rate worker is paid strictly by output. On slow days, earnings fall below the notiļ¬ed minimum. Which is correct?
Answer
B. The employer must ensure at least the minimum wage for the relevant category/period
98
An employee dies after 3 years of service. What is correct regarding gratuity?
Answer
A. Gratuity is payable to nominee/legal heirs despite not completing ļ¬ve years
99
A start-up crosses 20 employees for one month and later drops to 15. What is correct regarding EPF coverage?
Answer
B. EPF continues once applicable, even if numbers later fall below the threshold
100
A women on an 8-month ļ¬xed-term contract has worked 120 days in the 12 months before her expected delivery. What is most accurate?
Answer
B. Eligible for maternity beneļ¬ts if statutory service-day condition is met
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