| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Infectious Diseases |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 113/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 690/2025, 811/2025 |
| Date of Test | 2 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements regarding CCR5 receptor in HIV infection is correct?
Answer
Question Cancelled
2
The nef gene of HIV is important in progression of infection by the following function
Answer
B. Down regulate expression of MHC 1 on infected cells and protect from cytotoxic cells
3
A 24 year old laboratory technician sustains a needle-stick injury from a hollow bore needle while drawing blood from a client attended ICTC, at 11 am. The sample was tested positive for HIV infection by 12.30 pm. Which of the following is correct statement regarding post exposure prophylaxis?
Answer
D. PEP should be initiated immediately with 3 drug regimen
4
A 28 year old woman living with HIV and on ART for 3 years delivers a healthy baby. Her viral load tested on previous month showed > 150 copies/ml . she asks whether she can breastfeed her baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for a resource limited settings as per NACO guidelines?
Answer
D. Exclusive breast feeding with continued maternal ART is recommended for the ļ¬rst 6 months
5
Which of the following is correct regarding the P24 antigen of HIV?
Answer
A. The antigen is undetectable in established HIV infection
6
A 30-year-old voluntary blood donor male presents to the blood bank for donation. During pre-donation counselling, he admits to having had unprotected sexual exposure with a new partner 10 days earlier but states that he currently feels healthy and wants to ācheck whether he has HIV through blood donation.ā Physical examination and hemoglobin are normal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action according to standard blood bank and NACO principles?
Answer
D. Temporarily defer the donor and refer him to ICTC
7
A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed HIV infection presents with headache, vomiting, photophobia, and altered sensorium. His CD4 count is 32 cells/mL. CSF India ink examination showed presence of Cryptococci and CSF cryptococcal antigen is strongly positive. He is started on amphotericin B-based induction therapy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate strategy regarding initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?
Answer
C. Defer ART for 2-6 weeks because early ART increases mortality due to CNS IRIS
8
Pick out the FALSE statement regarding a candidate HIV Vaccine
Answer
D. Germline targeting approach mainly aims at the cytotoxic ability of CD 8 cells
9
Which of the following function of HIV is inhibited by the ART drug Lopinavir?
Answer
B. Cleavage of gag-pol polyprotein into functional viral proteins
10
A microbiologist explains that HIV transmission through dried environmental surfaces is extremely ineļ¬cient primarily because:
Answer
B. HIV loses infectivity on disruption of its lipid envelope during environmental exposure
11
A 53 year old woman develops fever and focal neurologic signs.MRI shows a left temporal lobe lesion. Which is the most appropriate test to conļ¬rm Herpes Simplex encephalitis in this patient?
Answer
C. CSF DNA PCR
12
Which of the following Pox virus infects only humans?
Answer
D. Molluscum contagiosum
13
A 36 year old nurse was found to be both HBsAg and HBeAg positive. The nurse most likely
Answer
A. Has acute hepatitis and is infectious
14
The following clinical syndromes are associated with Picorna viruses EXCEPT
Answer
C. Mononucleosis
15
Noro virus illness can be prevented by any of the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Licenced vaccine
16
The Hanta virus responsible for 2026 outbreak of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome in a cruise ship in Atlantic ocean is
Answer
A. Andes virus
17
Arbo viruses are found in the following families EXCEPT
Answer
B. Arena viridae
18
The principal reservoirs for the antigenic shift variants of inļ¬uenza virus appears to be which of the following?
Answer
C. Pigs, horses and fowl
19
The most likely cause of bronchiolitis in infants is
Answer
A. RSV
20
The oncogenic virus associated with Tropical spastic paraparesis is
Answer
B. HTLV
21
Who is the discoverer of Mycobacterium Leprae, the causative agent of leprosy?
Answer
B. Gerhard. Armauer Hansen
22
Which Staphylococcus species is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in sexually active young women and is novobiocin-resistant?
Answer
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
23
Wool sorter's disease is caused by
Answer
B. Bacillus anthracis
24
The agent of Lemierre's syndrome is
Answer
C. Fusobacterium necrophorum
25
Which is the highly infective stage in whooping cough?
Answer
A. Catarrhal stage
26
Bejel is caused by
Answer
B. Treponema endemicum
27
The most commonly used method for the isolation of Chlamydia
Answer
D. Culture on McCoy cell line
28
Ecthyma gangrenosum is caused by
Answer
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
29
Which of the following gram negative bacillus is most commonly associated with a post diarrheal syndrome also known as 'Guillain-Barre syndrome'?
Answer
B. Campylobacter jejuni
30
What is the typical incubation period for the emetic form of B. cereus intoxication?
Answer
A. 1-6 hours
31
The germ tube test is the rapid diagnostic method used to identify:
Answer
C. Candida albicans
32
Coccidiodomycosis is most commonly known as
Answer
B. San Joaquin valley fever
33
Sclerotic bodies or copper penny bodies are characteristics of which mycosis?
Answer
C. Chromoblastomycosis
34
Drug of choice of pulmonary mucormycosis is
Answer
C. Amphotericin B
35
Favic chandelier is the characteristic feature of
Answer
B. Trichophyton schoenleinii
36
Kerion refers to
Answer
B. Marked inļ¬ammatory response in dermatophytosis
37
Asteroid bodies observed in
Answer
A. Sporotrichosis
38
Which dermatophyte shows club shaped macroconidia in clusters?
Answer
B. Epidermophyton ļ¬ocossum
39
Broad based budding seen in which fungus?
Answer
B. Blastomyces dermatidis
40
Which organism causes black piedra?
Answer
B. Piedraia hortae
41
Ampicillin reduces eļ¬cacy of Oral contraceptive pills by
Answer
C. Aļ¬ecting its deconjugation and enterohepatic cycling
42
The drug with maximum oral bioavailability is:
Answer
B. Linezolid
43
Once daily dosing of Gentamicin is possible because
Answer
D. Exerts concentration dependent killing and post antibiotic eļ¬ect
44
Protein synthesis inhibitor acting at 50 S ribosome, eļ¬ective in community acquired Pneumonia is
Answer
A. Lefamulin
45
Dose adjustment is not needed in renal failure for
Answer
D. Moxiļ¬oxacin
46
Antibiotic antagonized by Pulmonary surfactant is
Answer
C. Daptomycin
47
Iron tablets given with tetracycline causes
Answer
B. Decreased absorption of tetracycline
48
Disulļ¬ram like interaction with alcohol is least with
Answer
C. Satranidazole
49
Black box warning by FDA has been issued for this adverse eļ¬ect of Bedagquiline
Answer
A. QTc prolongation
50
False statement about Caspofungin is
Answer
D. Given orally
51
In Blood transfusion associated Malaria, Choose the most appropriate option (i) The parasite will remain in blood bank for 1-2 weeks (ii) Pre erythrocytic schizogony is absent (iii) Hypnozoites may be seen (iv) Relapse does not occur
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
52
Deļ¬nitive host of Babesia parasite is
Answer
B. Ixodid scapularis
53
World Malaria day Theme of 2026
Answer
D. "Driven to End Malaria: Now We Can. Now We Must
54
Which of the following protozoa belongs to order Schizopyrenida?
Answer
B. Naegleria species
55
Anchovy sauce pus from liver abscess caused by Entamoeba histolytica consists of
Answer
B. Necrotic hepatocytes without any pus cells
56
The Chiclero ulcer (or bay sore) characterized by persistent ulcerations in pinna seen in Central America among workers living in forests harvesting chicle caused by
Answer
A. Leishmania mexicana
57
Trypanosoma rangeli is
Answer
B. Kinetoplast is Small and sub-terminal
58
Sporulated oocyst of cystoisospora belli contains:
Answer
C. Two sporocysts and eight sporozoites
59
Most common manifestation of Toxoplasma gondii in patients with HIV:
Answer
D. Encephalitis
60
Gold standard method of diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis infection
Answer
A. Culture
61
Which of the following statement is not true regarding Carbapenem- resistant enterobacterales (CRE)?
Answer
C. CRE that are carbapenemase-producing may be the result of ampliļ¬cation of non-carbapenemase -lactamase genes with concurrent outer membrane porin disruption.
62
Following statements are on Carbapenem-resistant Acinetobacter baumannii (CRAB) infections. i. It is always very clear if a CRAB isolate recovered from a respiratory or wound culture represents a colonizing organism especially in medically complex patients who are ill due to underlying host factors. ii. The production of OXA Carbapenemases (eg OXA-23, OXA-24/40) mediates resistance to -lactams incluing carbapenems and sulbactam. iii. CRAB isolates often produce additional serine -lactamases. iv. Sulbactam resistance is driven primarily by the presence of -lactamases and not via mutations targeting Penicillin Binding Proteins. True statements among these are
Answer
B. ii and iii
63
True statements regarding Stenotrophomonas maltophilia, an aerobic, glucose non-fermenting, gram-negative bacillus, are i. S. maltophilia exhibits intrinsic resistance to aminoglycosides via chromosomal aminoglycoside acetyl transferase enzymes. ii. An L1 metallo- -lactamase hydrolyses extended-spectrum cephalosporins and aztreonam, rendering these ineļ¬ective against S. maltophilia. iii. L2 serine -lactamase inactivates penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems, but not aztreonam in infection with S. maltophilia. iv. The combination of ceftazidime-avibactam and aztreonam is a preferred option for the treatment of S. maltophilia infection.
Answer
D. i and iv
64
Select the appropriate choice from the options based on the Assertion and Reason given below. Assertion(a): Aminopenicillins, narrow-spectrum cephalosporins and cephamycins are potent ampC inducers. Reason(r): Several -lactam antibiotics are at moderate risk of inducing ampC genes.
Answer
D. Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct explanation for (a)
65
Which of the following is not true regarding Pseudomonas aeruginosa resistance?
Answer
B. The concept of Diļ¬cult-to-Treat Resistance (DTR) is deļ¬ned as P.aeruginosa exhibiting non-susceptibility to piperacillin-tazobactam, ceftazidime, cefepime, ciproļ¬oxacin, and levoļ¬oxacin and susceptibility to meropenem, imipenem-cilastatƬn and aztreonam.
66
The goals of Anti-Microbial Stewardship programs include all of the following except
Answer
B. To establish formal statements to improve and monitor the antimicrobial use
67
The organisms posing urgent threats to human health according to the Centre for Disease Control (CDC) include all of the following except
Answer
C. Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases producing Enterobacteriaceae
68
The mechanism of drug resistance in certain pathogenic bacteria are given below. Which among this combination is not correct?
Answer
A. Salmonella - Mutations in the quinolone resistance determining areas of the chromosomal gyr and par genes have been shown to cause quinolone resistance which result in increased binding aļ¬nity of quinolone for topoisomerase enzymes.
69
Kind of antibiotic resistance and the mechanism involved in resistance in few pathogens are given below. Which statement among this is not correct?
Answer
A. Antibiotics spread out in the cell through the occurrence of mutations in the gene which speciļ¬cally encodes the outer membrane porin protein, and this results in the change in OMPK36 variant porin which shows less permeability for the antibiotics in Staphylococcus aureus.
70
Find out the wrong pair (MDR organism and their drug of choice).
Answer
D. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) - Mecillinam
71
A 10-year-old boy presents with recurrent Sinopulmonary infections, chronic diarrhea and failure to thrive. Clinical examination showed absent tonsils . Laboratory evaluation showed markedly decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE levels. Stool examination demonstrates Giardia lamblia infection. What is the most probable immunologic defect?
Answer
B. Mutation in Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase
72
A neutropenic patient develops persistent fever despite ļ¬ve days of broad- spectrum antibacterial therapy. CT scan of the chest reveals multiple pulmonary nodules surrounded by ground-glass opacities ("halo sign"). Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Answer
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
73
A renal transplant recipient presents 2 months after transplantation with fever, leukopenia, and interstitial pneumonitis. Which of the following is the most likely causative infection?
Answer
A. Cytomegalovirus infection
74
A hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipient develops progressive dyspnea, hypoxemia, and diļ¬use bilateral interstitial inļ¬ltrates on chest imaging 3 weeks after transplantation. This is classically seen with infection with
Answer
B. Pneumocystis jirovecii
75
A bed ridden paraplegic patient presents with fever and a foul-smelling sacral pressure ulcer with exposed underlying bone. Which of the following complications is most likely?
Answer
B. Osteomyelitis
76
An 78-year-old nursing home resident presents with acute confusion, recurrent falls and poor oral intake without documented fever. Which of the following infections should be strongly suspected?
Answer
B. Urinary tract infection
77
Which of the following pathogens is a major cause of outbreaks in long- term care facilities and nursing homes?
Answer
A. Norovirus
78
Commonest organism causing overwhelm ing sepsis in post splenectomy patients
Answer
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
79
A splenectomized patient develops rapidly progressive septic shock following a dog bite. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
Answer
C. Capnocytophaga canimorsus
80
A severely burned patient develops fever and greenish wound exudate accompanied by ecthyma gangrenosum-like skin lesions. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause?
Answer
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
81
Which of the followving is true about PVE (Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis)? i. Staphylococcus aureus cause both early and late onset PVE ii. Modiļ¬ed Duke criteria is used for clinical evaluation and diagnosis of PVE iii. Streptococci are the most common organisms causing PVE iv. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental and invasive procedures is recommended for prevention
Answer
C. Only (i, ii and iv)
82
The best tool for diagnostic evaluation of graft infection in prosthetic Vascular grafts is
Answer
A. CT scan
83
Which of the following aļ¬ect eļ¬cacy of sterilisation of endoscopic instruments? i. Adequate cleaning of instruments before sterilisation ii. Design of the instrument iii. Lumen length iv. Lumen diameter
Answer
C. All the above
84
As per the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016 who is the prescribed authority for implementation of the provisions of the rules in a state in India?
Answer
D. State Pollution Control Board
85
The number of days of Quarantine required for travellers who have travelled to or passing through endemic areas of Yellow fever and not possessing a vaccination certiļ¬cate
Answer
A. 6
86
Microbial forensics developed in the wake of bioterrorist attack with which of the following organisms in 2001?
Answer
B. Bacillus Anthracis
87
Which of the following is/are correct about BCG scar? i. Scar is present in all individuals. ii. Scar formation usually takes around 6 to 12 weeks iii. Mantoux positivity occurs between 8 to 14 weeks iv. Incorrect technique leads to development of pustule
Answer
D. Only (ii and iii)
88
Which of the following is/are not correct about Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infection (CAUT)? i. The majority of patients with catheter-associated bacteriuria are asymptomatic ii. The most important risk factor for catheter associated bacteriuria is unsterile technique of insertion iii. Bacteremia is a rare complication of catheter associated bacteriuria iv. Over treatment of Asymptomatic Bacteriuria (ASB) is a major contributor to Antimicrobial misuse
Answer
C. Only (ii)
89
The infection which is found more in Heart lung and Lung transplant patients as compared to other types of organ transplants is
Answer
A. Invasive Aspergillosis
90
Which is/are true regarding vaccinations of transplant patients? i. Live vaccines can be given two weeks prior to transplant ii. Close contacts should not be given live vaccines iii. Yellow fever vaccine is contraindicated in post-transplant patients iv. If the transplant occurs in Inļ¬uenza season Inļ¬uenza vaccine can be given after two weeks of transplant
Answer
B. Only (iii)
91
Which of the following is false regarding Hanta virus?
Answer
D. Most hantaviruses are known to spread person-to-person
92
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Integrated Disease Surveillance Program in India? i. The types of surveillance are syndromic, presumptive and lab conļ¬rmed ii. The forms used are S Form, P Form and L Form iii. S form is ļ¬lled by Medical Oļ¬cer
Answer
B. Only (i and ii)
93
A patient develops poikilothermia following a hypothalamic stroke. Damage to which of the regions is most likely for impaired heat Conservation mechanisms?
Answer
C. Posterior Hypothalamus
94
According to the Kerala state management guidelines for short febrile illness the investigation-based approach should be done if fever is more than _________ days.
Answer
A. Three
95
Which of the following is unlikely to be a causative agent for sepsis with skin ļ¬ndings?
Answer
D. None of the above
96
Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of Urinary tract infection is FALSE?
Answer
B. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should routinely be Screened for and treated in all elderly individuals
97
A 63-year-old man with diabetes mellitus presents with fever, productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea and fatigue for 4 days. Chest radiograph shows right lower lobe consolidation with moderate pleural eļ¬usion. The patient is haemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in diagnostic evaluation?
Answer
C. Perform diagnostic pleural ļ¬uid analysis if imaging characteristics are atypical for ļ¬uid overload
98
Which of the following group of pathogens has been identiļ¬ed as contributing the highest attributable burden of diarrhoea during the ļ¬rst year if life in developing countries?
Answer
A. Noroviruses GII, rotaviris, Campylobacter spp, astrovirus, and Cryptosporidium spp
99
Which of the following statements regarding septic arthritis is FALSE?
Answer
B. Most cases of septic arthritis are polyarticular
100
A 28-year-old man presents with acute fever and a generalised rash. While evaluating him using a syndromic approach to infectious diseases, which of the following histories is LEAST relevant in identifying the possible etiology?
Answer
C. Dietary spice intake and food preferences
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