| Post Name | Assistant professor in Law - Paper I |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Collegiate Education |
| Question Paper Code | 088/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 569/2024 |
| Date of Test | 11 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Choose the correct option from the choice given below : Assertion (A) : Analytical School of jurisprudence separates law from mortality Reason (R) : It considers only command backed by sanction as law
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2
Which of the following legal concepts best corresponds to Hohfeld's classiļ¬cation of "no-right"?
Answer
B. Privilege
3
According to Justice Cardozo, which of the following best describes the limits of a judge's freedom in decision-making?
Answer
C. Judges are not wholly free and must be guided by tradition, analogy and necessity
4
What is the correct meaning of a right in repropria?
Answer
A. A right over one's own property or body
5
Which of the following describes a declaratory precedent, as per Salmond's classiļ¬cation?
Answer
A. A precedent that applies an already established rule of law
6
A corporation sole is
Answer
B. A sovereign or individual oļ¬ce holder acting legally as a single person
7
A statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding Reason (R). Choose the correct option from the choice given below : Assertion (A) : Jurimetrics is a ļ¬eld primarily concerned with applying quantitative methods to analyze legal phenomena and judicial processes Reason (R) : By utilizing statistical analysis of legal data, jurimetrics can identify patterns, predict outcomes and uncover systemic biases within the legal system
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
8
Roscoe Pound's 'jural postulates' are best understood as
Answer
C. Assumptions about human behavior and societal expectations that underpin a functioning legal order
9
Which of the following situation best illustrate the concept of 'Possession' rather than 'Ownership'?
Answer
B. A thief driving a stolen car, intending to keep it permanently
10
Match the items in List I with the most appropriate item in List II. Choose the correct combination from the options given below each question. List (Case law) List II (Legal principle) a. Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar 1. Signiļ¬cantly reaļ¬rmed and applied the doctrine of prospective overruling, ensuring judicial pronouncements apply to future cases to avoid upsetting past transactions b. Golaknath v. state of Punjab 2. Established the inherent power of the Supreme Court to review and overrule its own previous decisions when deemed necessary to correct an error, aļ¬rming its position as the ļ¬nal arbiter of law, though this power is exercised with great caution c. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 3. First introduced and applied the doctrine of prospective overruling in Indian constitutional jurisprudence, stating that amendments curtailing fundamental rights would not retrospectively aļ¬ect past amendments
Answer
A. a-2, b-3, c-1
11
John Rawls's 'Diļ¬erence Principle', a component of his Second Principle of Justice, allows for social and economic inequalities under what speciļ¬c condition?
Answer
B. When they are to the greatest beneļ¬t of the least advantaged members of society
12
In the context of international conventions and treaties, what is the primary purpose of a 'reservation' made by a State Party?
Answer
B. To exclude or modify the legal eļ¬ect of certain provisions of the treaty in their application to that State
13
The Supreme Court of India's decision in Association For Democratic Reforms v. Union of India, prioritized the right to information over the privacy of political donors, exempliļ¬ed a jurisprudential balancing act and elucidates.
Answer
B. The inherent conļ¬ict between corporate anonymity and the principles of transparent and informed democratic participation
14
Which of the following explains the legal eļ¬ect of a non obstante clause in statutory interpretation, as recognized by courts?
Answer
C. A non obstante clause is a legislative device to give the enacting section overriding eļ¬ect over conļ¬icting provisions in the same or other statues but its scope must be determined in harmony with the object and purpose of the act
15
Under what circumstances do courts apply the Mischief rule :
Answer
B. The statutory language is vague and the court needs to determine the intent of the legislature by identifying the defect in the previous law that the statute aimed to remedy
16
Which of the following statements reļ¬ect the application of the Literal Rule of interpretation?
Answer
B. The court must give eļ¬ect to the grammatical and ordinary meaning of statutory words, even if the outcome is harsh or undesirable
17
Which of the following statements criticize Bentham's Utilitarian Theory of Legislation when applied to complex, pluralistic societies?
Answer
B. It fails to consider the role of individual rights and minority interests when the majority's happiness prevails
18
Which of the following illustrates the application of the Doctrine of Pith and Substance?
Answer
D. When a law, in its true essence, falls within the competence of the legislature, it remains valid despite incidental encroachment into another ļ¬eld
19
Law punishes any one who "possesses counterfeit currency", a man unknowingly receives a fake note in change and uses it at a shop. He is later charged under the law. The statute is silent on the mental element. Which principle should guide interpretations?
Answer
B. In Bonam partem - beneļ¬t of doubt where intention is unclear
20
A statute penalises "persons using ļ¬rearms in public parks, gardens, and other areas". A person is found using a ļ¬rearm in a privately-owned warehouse. He argues that the statute does not apply to him. How should the phrase "other areas" be interpreted using the rule of Ejusdem Generis?
Answer
A. It includes similar public recreational areas
21
Match term with meaning : a. In Pari materia 1. Statutes on same subject b. In Bonam Partem 2. In a fair sense c. Ejusdem Generis 3. Of the same kind d. Pith and substance 4. True nature and purpose Options :
Answer
A. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
22
What is the essence of the Rule of Harmonious Construction?
Answer
C. Interpreting conļ¬icting provisions to avoid repugnancy
23
The doctrine of "In Pari Materia" allows interpretation of statutes
Answer
C. With reference to laws on similar subject matter
24
What is the primary purpose of applying the Golden Rule of statutory interpretations?
Answer
D. To modify the literal meaning to avoid absurd or unjust results
25
Which of the following correctly diļ¬erentiates internal from external aids?
Answer
B. Internal aids are tools found within the statute; external aids are found outside it
26
Under which of the following circumstances can a state actor legally override a jus cogens principle under international law?
Answer
D. Under no circumstances can a jus cogens principle be overridden
27
Which of the following is not a duty of a state under public international law?
Answer
D. Recognising all territorial acquisitions
28
What is the status of a treaty that has been signed but not ratiļ¬ed by one or more parties?
Answer
B. Not binding
29
State X brings a case against State Y at the International Court of Justice (ICJ), alleging that State Y violated a bilateral treaty. State Y refuses to appear before the ICJ, arguing it never accepted the court's jurisdiction. Under international law, what is the status of the ICJ's jurisdiction in such a case?
Answer
B. The ICJ can proceed only if both parties explicity consented to its jurisdiction before the dispute arose
30
During an armed conļ¬ict, the military commander of State A commits widespread crimes against civilians. A civil society organisation ļ¬les a complaint before the International Criminal Court (ICC), asking it to prosecute both the commander and the government of State A as a whole. Considering the ICC's jurisdiction, whom can the court prosecute
Answer
B. Only individuals, including the commander, but not the state or organisations
31
State X requests the extradition of Mr. A from State Y on charges of terrorism. However, State Y discovers that ā¢ There is no extradition treaty between State X and State Y ā¢ Mr. A has already been tried and convicted for the same acts in State Y ā¢ There is credible evidence that Mr. A may face torture if extradited to State X Under international law and general extradition principles, what can State Y do?
Answer
C. State Y may deny the request on any of these grounds
32
How can customary international law be modiļ¬ed?
Answer
D. All of the above
33
With rapid technological advances, State X starts deploying mass facial recognition surveillance in public spaces without consent, leading to widespread concerns about data privacy and individual autonomy. Civil society groups argue that this violates emerging human rights standards. Which of the following best illustrates a Fourth Generation Human Right that could be invoked in this context?
Answer
C. The right to protection of personal data and digital privacy
34
State Y claims that because it has strong democratic institutions and free elections, occasional human rights abuses - such as unlawful detentions and police brutality - should be considered minor and not subject to international scrutiny. Which principle of human rights most clearly refute State Y's claim?
Answer
C. All human rights violations, even isolated ones, undermine the universality and indivisibility of human rights and must be addressed
35
India is considering authorising a public sector company to mine polymetallic nodules from an area beyond its exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Proponents argue that deep-sea mining is environmentally friendly and economically essential, citing huge prior investments and global mineral shortages. However, environmental groups raise concerns about irreversible harm to fragile marine ecosystems and criticise the lack of a clear ethical justiļ¬cation for property rights over the seabed. In this context, which of the following best reļ¬ects the legal and ethical obligations India must consider before proceeding?
Answer
B. India must obtain authorisation from the International Seabed Authority (ISA) under UNCLOS and consider environmental and common heritage obligations
36
Assertion (A) : The UDHR, 1948, is legally binding on all UN member states Reason (R) : The UDHR was adopted as a General Assembly resolution and not as a treaty.
Answer
D. A is false but R is true
37
Match the international conventions with their primary subject matter : A. ILO Convention No. 182 1. Rights of Indigenous peoples B. ILO convention No. 169 2. Worst forms of child labour C. CEDAW 3. Women's Rights D. CRC 4. Rights of the child
Answer
A. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
38
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Extradition Act, 1962, provides for bilateral and multilateral extradition agreements 2. Genocide is recognized as a crime under customary international law and the Genocide Convention, 1948 3. Territorial Waters in India extend up to 200 nautical miles 4. The protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, established the National Human Rights Commission options :
Answer
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
39
Assertion (A) : The ICESCR recognizes the right to work Reason (R) : ICESCR creates non-justiļ¬able socio-economic obligations
Answer
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
40
Match the maritime zones with their limits A. Territorial sea 1. 200 Nautical miles B. Contiguous zone 2. 24 Nautical miles C. EEZ 3. 12 Nautical miles D. Continental Shelf 4. Beyond 200 NM Options :
Answer
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
41
Which of the following are true regarding IHL? 1. IHL applies only during declared ward between states 2. Geneva Conventions are a core part of IHL 3. Customary IHL applies to both international and non-international armed conļ¬icts 4. Aircraft hijacking is regulated under IHL. Options :
Answer
A. 2 and 3 only
42
Consider the following regarding indigenous persons : 1. ILO convention 169 is legally binding and India is a signatory 2. The UN declaration on the rights of Indigenous people, 2007 is not legally binding 3. Indigenous persons are addressed in Article 27 of the ICCPR. Options :
Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
43
Match violations with conventions A. Genocide 1. 1951 Refugee Convention B. Aircraft Hijacking 2. Hague convention, 1970 C. Refugee protection 3. Genocide convention, 1948 D. Armed conļ¬ict 4. Geneva conventions Options :
Answer
A. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
44
Assertion (A) : States cannot prosecute pirates on high seas unless citizens Reason (R) : High seas are under exclusive jurisdiction of ļ¬ag state.
Answer
Question Cancelled
45
Consider the following regarding protection of human rights act, 1993. 1. The act created NHRC and SHRCs. 2. NHRC can take suo moto congnizance 3. NHRC chairperson must be retired CJI 4. NHRC can impose penalties Options:
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Find out which of the following statements are correct? i. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a voidable contract ii. Section 183 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deļ¬nes pledge iii. A person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mine, may make a contract when he is of sound mind iv. A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards
Answer
C. Statement i and iii are correct
47
Which of the following cases explain the principle of Damnum Sine Injuria?
Answer
A. Gloucester Grammar School
48
Which of the following statements are correct? i. Contingent agreement to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, only when impossibility of the event is known to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made ii. Section 64 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act explains the Circumstances in which limited liability partnership may be wound up by Tribunal iii. A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions, by notice to the creditor iv. P supplies Q, a lunatic with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. P is not entitled to be reimbursed from Q's property
Answer
B. Statements ii and iii are correct
49
The unpaid seller of goods loses his lien thereon when
Answer
D. All of the above cases
50
The decision in Hall v Brooklands Auto-Racing Club relates to
Answer
C. Doctrine of Volunti non-ļ¬t infjuria
51
Section 35A of the Civil Procedure Code deals with
Answer
A. Compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences
52
Find out which of the following statements are correct? i. The rights of a partner to a share of the proļ¬t and losses of the limited liability partnership and to receive distributions in accordance with the limited liability partnership agreement are not transferable ii. A, without B's authority, lends B's money to C. Afterwards B accepts interest on the money from C. B's conduct implies a ratiļ¬cation of the loan. iii. A warranty is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which give rise to a right to treat the contracts as repudiated
Answer
C. Only the statement (ii) is correct
53
Which section of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deļ¬nes coercion?
Answer
A. Section 15
54
Find out the correct statements i. Section 74 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with the power of the court to issue commissions ii. Section 91 of the Civil Procedure Code provides the procedure for dealing with public nuisances and other wrongful acts aļ¬ecting the public iii. Order XXXII explains the provisions for suits instituted by indigent persons iv. Order XXIX states the provisions for ļ¬ling suits against a corporation
Answer
A. The statements ii and iv are correct
55
Which of the following provisions deal with setting aside Exparte Decree
Answer
A. Order IX RULE 13
56
Which of the following is correct? i. The principle of Res ipsa loquitur states that "the thing speaks for itself" ii. The principle of "Qui facit per alium, facit per se" explains the principle of act of God iii. Laws does not allow any defences in Strict liability iv. The foreseability test is applied to ļ¬nd out remoteness of damages
Answer
B. The statements i and iv are correct
57
Which section of the Civil Procedure Code states that court order shall not order the arrest or detention in the civil prison of a woman in execution of a decree for the payment of money
Answer
D. Section 56
58
Find out the correct statement from the following i. The sharing of proļ¬ts or of gross returns arising from property by persons holding a joint or common interest in that property does not of itself make such persons partners ii. Section 27 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 explain the principle of holding out iii. Section 30 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 states that a minor may be admitted to the beneļ¬ts of partnership. iv. Section 45 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 explains the grounds for Dissolution of a ļ¬rm by the Court
Answer
B. The statements i and iii are correct
59
The suit excepted from the cognizance of a court of Small Causes is
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
60
The legal disability under Limitation Act 1963 is dealt under which section
Answer
C. S.6
61
Every instrument chargeable with duty executed only out of India may be stamped within ________ after it has been ļ¬rst received in the state of Kerala
Answer
D. 3 months
62
The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 came into force on
Answer
Question Cancelled
63
The authority authorised by the Central Government under section 12 A of Commercial Courts Act, 2015 shall complete mediation within _________ from the date of application made by the plaintiļ¬
Answer
A. 3 months
64
In a suit instituted for defamation, the court fee to be paid by the party should be _______ per centum on the amount of compensation claimed
Answer
D. One
65
The period for mediation may be extended for a further period as agreed by the parties not exceeding
Answer
A. 60 days
66
A person shall be entitled to receive legal service if
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
67
Section 7 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with
Answer
A. Arbitration Agreement
68
When can a conductor's licence be revoked?
Answer
C. Suļ¬ering from any disease
69
What is meant by Lex Fori?
Answer
B. The law in force in the country hearing the dispute
70
Which is the International treaty which deals with cyberspace
Answer
A. Budapest Convention
71
Chapter II of the Transfer of Property Act shall not be deemed to eļ¬ect any rule of
Answer
D. Mohammadan Law
72
A transfer a garden to B for her life, with a provisio that, in case Be cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall cease to have any eļ¬ect. B cuts down the wood. Decide the case in the light of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Answer
A. B loses his life interest in the farm
73
X marries to Y but in case she dies in his lifetime, he would transfer the property to Z. X and Y perish together, under circumstances which make it impossible to probe that she died before him. The disposition of property in favour of Z.
Answer
C. Does not take eļ¬ect
74
Within the meaning of section 48 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transfer cannot prejudice the rights of the transferee by any subsequent dealing with the property. This Self-evident proposition is expressed in equitable maxim.
Answer
B. Qui prior est tempore potior est jure
75
Which sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 shall be read as supplemented to the Indian Registration Act, 1908?
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
The foundations principle of lis pendens embodied in section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 relate to
Answer
B. Public policy
77
In the context of patient law, what does "non-obviousness" refer to?
Answer
B. The invention must be signiļ¬cantly diļ¬erent from prior art, such that it would not be obvious to a person skilled in the art
78
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding the registration of a trademark under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?
Answer
C. Descriptive terms that directly indicate the kind, quality or intended purpose of the goods or services can be registered without any limitation.
79
Under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmer's Rights Act, 2001 (PPVFR Act), which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding the rights and obligations of breeders and farmers in India?
Answer
D. Farmers are required to pay a fee for any legal proceedings under the Act, including registration of their varieties and claims for compensation if a registered variety fails to perform as expected
80
Which of the following statement is true with respect to traditional knowledge and patent law in India?
Answer
B. India has a Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL) to prevent biopiracy
81
Which of the following area, where Central Government is exclusively competent to enact legislations?
Answer
D. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilļ¬elds
82
Which provision under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 guarantees the right of Workmen laid-oļ¬ to claim for compensation
Answer
B. Section 25 C
83
The Factories Act, of 1948 provides that creches be established and maintained for the use of children under the age of six years?
Answer
C. in factory employing more than thirty workers
84
State true or false
Answer
Question Cancelled
85
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 covers
Answer
C. Both workplace and dwelling place
86
Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, wages must be paid to employees
Answer
B. within 10 days of the wage period ending
87
When does women become eligible for maternity beneļ¬t?
Answer
B. if she has worked for 80 days in the last 12 months
88
The ESI Act applies to employees drawing a monthly wage of
Answer
C. up to Rs. 21,000
89
How many years of continuous service is necessary for gratuity to become payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
Answer
C. 5 years
90
Which of the following best described the objectives of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
Answer
B. To simplicity and consolidate laws on trade unions, conditions of employment and industrial disputes
91
With reference to the Companies Act, 2013 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List I List II A. Formation of a company (i) Sec. 3 B. Memorandum (ii) Sec. 4 C. Prospectus (iii) Sec. 2 (70) D. Debentures (iv) Sec. 2(30) Codes :
Answer
B. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
92
Every listed public company is to have at least _______ number of the total number of directors as independent directors and his appointment has to be approved by the company in _________ meeting.
Answer
A. One third, general
93
Conversion of a private company into public company is possible in the following situations
Answer
A. By choice
94
In the cases of oppression and mismanagement of a company with share capital, the application to NCLT must be signed by at least ___________ members of the company
Answer
B. 100
95
About the Key Managerial Personnel (KMP), read the following : I. It's provided under Sec 203 II. Chief Financial Oļ¬cer is one of the KMP III. Contravention of the section by the company makes it punishable with ļ¬ne from 1-5 lakh IV. A KMP can hold oļ¬ce in its subsidiary company at the same time as well as other companies Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Answer
D. I, II, III only
96
On March 11, 2025 the Securities and exchange Board of India (SEBI) notiļ¬ed amendments to the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 (PIT Regulations), expanding the scope of which of the following
Answer
A. Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI)
97
Statement I : Serious Fraud Investigation Oļ¬ce (SFIO) has been provided under Sec. 211 Statement II : SFIO can suo-moto (on its own) investigate the aļ¬airs of the company Choose the correct options :
Answer
A. Only Statement I is true
98
NCLT can order winding up of a company in the following cases : i. Special Resolution by the company ii. Acts against Soveriegnty iii. Fraudulent conduct of aļ¬airs iv. Default in ļ¬ling ļ¬nancial statements v. Just and Equitable ground Choose the correct option :
Answer
D. All of the above
99
What is the time limit for completion of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under IBC, 2016?
Answer
C. 330 days (including extensions and legal proceedings)
100
Saloman v. Saloman & Co. Ltd. is a classic case of which one of the following about a company (choose the best option)
Answer
B. Independent Corporate Existence
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