| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Law - Paper I |
|---|---|
| Department | Collegiate Education (Law Colleges) |
| Question Paper Code | 122/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 033/2025 |
| Date of Test | 16 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following provisions explain the territorial Jurisdiction of the suits relating to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of diļ¬erent Courts?
Answer
A. Section 17 of the Civil Procedure Code
2
Which of the following deļ¬nes Coercion?
Answer
D. Section 15 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
3
The essential conditions for ļ¬ling inter pleader suit is given under
Answer
A. ORDER XXXV of the Civil Procedure Code
4
Find out the correct option. (i) Injuria sine damno states that violation of a legal right without any damage is actionable. (II) Damnum sine injuria states that violation of a legal right without any damage is actionable. (iii) Damnum sine injuria states that violation of a legal right without any damage is not actionable. (iv) Injuria sine damno states that violation of a legal right without any damage is not actionable.
Answer
C. The statement (i) is correct.
5
Which of the following ļ¬xes the liability of a bailee for unauthorized use of goods bailed?
Answer
C. Section 154 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
6
Contingent contract is deļ¬ned under
Answer
B. Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
7
Find out the correct option. (i) A decree may be executed either by the court which passed it, or by the Court to which it is sent for execution. (ii) Section 53 of the C PC provides for the arrest and detention of the judgment- debtor in execution the decree (iii) Order XXVI of the Civil Procedure Code contains the provisions for issuing Commissions to examine witnesses (iv) Order XXXI of the Civil Procedure Code states that every suit by a minor shall be instituted in his name by the next friend of the minor.
Answer
B. Only the statements are (i) and (iii) are correct
8
Find out the correct option. i) Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that agreement in restraint of marriage is void. ii) According to section 56, an agreement to do an act impossible in itself void. iii) A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself is called a ācontract of guaranteeā. iv) A guarantee may be either oral or written.
Answer
D. Only the statements ii) and iv) are correct
9
Which of the following explain the duty of a Bailor to disclose faults in goods bailed?
Answer
A. Section 150 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
10
Find out the correct option. i) The maxim Volenti non-ļ¬t injuria is subjected to certain exceptions. ii) Act of God is a defence in Tort. iii) Ryland V. Fletcher is based on absolute liability iv) āQuit facit per alieum facit per seā explains the principle of damages.
Answer
C. Only the statements i) and ii) are correct
11
Sale and agreement to self are deļ¬ned under
Answer
A. Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
12
Find out the correct option. i) Section 46 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 describes the rights of an Unpaid seller. ii) A warranty is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated. iii) Section 15 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 explains the Implied conditions as to quality or ļ¬tness in a sale iv) Section 41 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 explains the Buyerās right of examining the goods.
Answer
A. Only the statements i) and iv) are correct
13
Find out the correct option i) The relation of partnership arises from status and not from contract. ii) Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 deļ¬nes the term āpartnership.ā iii) A partner is the agent of the ļ¬rm for the purposes of the business of the ļ¬rm. iv) Section 29 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932,explains the principle of holding out in partnership.
Answer
B. Only the statements ii) and iii) are correct
14
A municipal rule states that āvehicles are prohibited inside the public park.ā A parent allows a child to ride a battery-operated toy car inside the park. The authorities impose a ļ¬ne. If the court applies the Golden Rule, what is the most likely outcome?
Answer
B. The toy car will be excluded from the meaning of āvehicleā to avoid an absurd result
15
A statute prohibits fraudulent ļ¬nancial transactions but does not expressly mention cryptocurrency scams. The court interprets the statute broadly to include such scams. Which rule of interpretation is being applied?
Answer
D. Mischief Rule
16
A statute refers to āknives, daggers, swords, and other weapons.ā Under ejusdem generis, āother weaponsā would most likely include:
Answer
B. Objects similar to bladed weapons
17
A welfare law granting maternity beneļ¬ts is interpreted liberally in favour of women employees. Which principle is being applied?
Answer
C. Beneļ¬cial Interpretation
18
A proviso attached to a statutory section generally aims to:
Answer
A. Create an exception
19
Two Provisions of the Same Statute appear conļ¬icting. The Court interprets them go both remain eļ¬ective. Which Principle is applied?
Answer
B. Harmonious Construction
20
A penal statute ambiguously deļ¬nes ātampering with records ā Which approach should the court adopt?
Answer
D. Strict interpretation in favour of the accused
21
A provision begins with āNotwithstanding anything Contained in any other law...ā. This indicates.
Answer
C. A non-obstante Clause
22
A Judge relies on Parliamentary debates to interpret an ambiguous Provision. Parliamentary debates are:
Answer
B. External aids
23
A tax law has been interpreted in the Same Manner by authorities for many years, Which Principle Supports reliance on this long-standing interpretation?
Answer
A. Contemporanea Expositio
24
A court observes that a statute regulating social media was enacted before the rise of artiļ¬cial intelligence. Instead of creating entirely new legal rules, the court interprets the statute within its existing framework and leaves major policy changes to Parliament. This approach reļ¬ects:
Answer
D. Judicial Self-Restraint
25
A statute states that an application āshallā be ļ¬led within 30 days. The court holds that delay may still be condoned in exceptional cases to advance justice. The provision is most likely treated as:
Answer
B. Directory
26
International law deals with the (i) functioning of international institutions, (ii) Non-State entities, (iii) rights and duties of non-state entities are concern of international community, (iv) states only. Identify the true statement:
Answer
C. I, III and IV
27
Which scholar/jurist utilized the framework of jus gentium and jus naturae through his book āDe Jure Belli Ac Pacisā to create foundation of International Law:
Answer
B. Hugo Grotius
28
Who considered International Law as the vanishing point of jurisprudence?
Answer
C. Holland
29
Name the doctrine according to which recognition should not be given to any government which has come in power by revolutionary means.
Answer
B. Tobar Doctrine
30
Which of the following statement is/are correct for the recognition of insurgency? I. Insurgents should be in eļ¬ective control of suļ¬cient part of the territory. II. Insurgents should have the support of the majority of population of the territory. III. They should be capable and willing to discharge their international responsibilities.
Answer
D. I, II & III
31
Which of the following statement is/are correct? l. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is a concept of law and is optional. II. Every State irrespective of its location has/have right to exploit and explore the resources of the continental shelf. III. Rights of the costal States are exclusive sovereign rights over the shelf. IV. Coastal State may have to share EEZ the resources with landlocked or geographically disadvantage States.
Answer
C. I, III & IV
32
Every State with or without a coast has the right to sail ships ļ¬ying its ļ¬ag on the _____________.
Answer
A. High Sea only
33
Identify the true statement about piracy: (I) Piracy is committed on High Sea. (II) Piracy can be committed by warships/government ships. (III) Piracy is an oļ¬ence against humanity.
Answer
C. (I) & (III) True
34
Which Article of International Law deals with the concept of hot pursuit under Law of Sea?
Answer
B. UNCLOS 1982, Article 111
35
Identify the means of setting disputes between parties arising out of the interpretation of UNCLOS 1982:
Answer
D. All of the above
36
As per Article 14 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Protects the fundamental right of individual to seek and enjoy asylum in other countries when ļ¬eeing persecution. (ii) This right can only be granted with the permission of the applicantās home country. (iii) This right is available only to people belonging to member countries of the United Nations. (iv) This right may be suspended during times of economic crisis in foreign countries.
Answer
A. Option (i)
37
Which of the following is a ground for refusal of Extradition?
Answer
D. The oļ¬ence of which a person is accused or convicted is a military oļ¬ence.
38
Consider the following statements regarding the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976: (i) The territorial waters of India extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline. (ii) India has complete sovereignty over the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). (iii) The continental shelf may extend beyond 200 nautical miles subject to international law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. (i) and (iii) only
39
Under the Maritime Zones Act, 1976: (i) The Central Government may extend any enactment to the Exclusive Economic Zone. (ii) The Act permits India to establish contiguous zone up to 24 nautical miles. (iii) Customs and ļ¬scal laws may be enforced in the contiguous zone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
40
India exercises sovereign rights over natural resources in the Continental Shelf under which provision of the Maritime Zones Act, 1976?
Answer
A. Section 6
41
Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, complaints cannot be entertained after:
Answer
B. One year from the date of violation
42
Which of the following right is not covered by International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966?
Answer
D. Right to an adequate standard of living
43
Which Article of International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural rights recognises āRight of Everyone to Educationā?
Answer
A. Article 13
44
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the structure of the International Labour Organization (ILO)?
Answer
C. The ILO follows a Tripartite Structure involving governments, employers, and workers
45
Which statement is correct about this situation regarding Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948? A local government makes it compulsory for people to use a digital tracking app. The app records where citizens go, who they meet, and their social connections to help improve city traļ¬c. People who refuse to use the app are not allowed to use public transport or enter government oļ¬ces. (i) The policy is fully compliant with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, because optimising municipal infrastructure serves a collective utility that inherently supersedes individual liberties. (ii) The policy violates Article 12 (Right to Privacy) and Article 13 (Freedom of Movement) because the broad collection of data lacks proportionality and penalises the exercise of fundamental freedoms. (iii) The policy is acceptable because restricting access to public transportation does not constitute a meaningful infringement on an individual's personal liberty. (iv) The policy is invalid solely because digital technology was not explicitly envisioned or regulated by the authors of the original declaration.
Answer
B. Option (ii)
46
Consider the following assertions concerning the concept of 'free consentā in contract law: I. Consent is deemed free even if it results from a misrepresentation, provided that no deliberate intent to deceive existed. II. A contract formed where consent was obtained through coercion is inherently void, rather than being voidable at the option of the aggrieved party. III. Silence can be construed as fraud in circumstances where there is an obligation to disclose information or if the silence itself functions as a representation. Which of the assertions presented above correctly states a principle of free consent?
Answer
C. Only Assertion III is correct
47
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, based on judicial precedents, an agreement entered into by a minor (a person who has not attained the age of majority) is generally considered:
Answer
B. Void ab initio (void from the very beginning), and cannot be enforced by or against the minor
48
Which of the following case laws laid down the foundational principle for awarding reasonable compensation for breach of contract, later reļ¬ected in Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Answer
C. Hadley v. Baxendale
49
Match the following legal principles with the corresponding landmark case laws under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 Legal Principle 1. A suretyās liability is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor. 2. Consideration must move at the desire of the promisor. 3. Obligation to pay for non-gratuitous acts. 4. Principal bound by acts of agent within actual authority CASE LAW a. Pannalal Jankidas v. Mohanlal b. Bank of Bihar v. Damodar Prasad c. Durga Prasad v. Baldeo d. State of W.B. v. B.K. Mondal and Sons
Answer
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
50
Which of the following is NOT an implied condition under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
Answer
C. Condition as to reasonable opportunity to examine goods
51
Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in which of the following situations is a ļ¬rm compulsorily dissolved by operation of law?
Answer
D. If all the partners, or all except-one, are declared insolvent
52
In the absence of a written Limited Liability Partnership agreement, the mutual rights and duties of the partners in a Limited Liability Partnership are governed by:
Answer
C. Schedule I of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
53
Which of the following is true regarding digital signatures under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
Answer
C. Digital signatures use asymmetric cryptosystem and hash function to ensure authentication
54
Under a shrink-wrap contract, at what point is a buyer legally presumed to have accepted the terms and conditions included with the product?
Answer
B. When the buyer opens the sealed software packaging
55
The āremoteness of damageā test laid down in Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v Morts Dock Engineering Co Ltd (The Wagon Mound) emphasized:
Answer
C. Only damages that are reasonably foreseeable are recoverable
56
Assertion (A): A manufacturer owes a duty of care to the ultimate consumer, even without a contractual relationship. Reason (R): In Donoghue v. Stevenson, the court held that contractual privity is essential to claim negligence.
Answer
C. A is true, but R is false
57
A foreign judgment was obtained against an Indian citizen, Mr. A, in a country where the legal proceedings did not provide Mr. A with adequate notice or an opportunity to be heard. If this foreign judgment is sought to be enforced in India, under which clause of Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, would it most likely be deemed not conclusive?
Answer
C. Section 13(d) - Where the proceedings in which the judgment was obtained are opposed to natural justice
58
Distinguish between the scope of 'Review' under Section 114 read with Order 47 of CPC and āRevisionā under Section 115 of CPC.
Answer
B. Review can be sought on grounds of discovery of new and important matter or apparent error on the face of the record, while Revision primarily concerns jurisdictional errors by subordinate courts
59
Which of the following rules of interpretation has to be adopted if the words of the statute are in themselves precise and unambiguous?
Answer
C. Grammatical Interpretation
60
Ejusdem Generis means
Answer
A. Of the Same kind
61
Heydonās case is related to ______________ rule of interpretation.
Answer
B. Mischief Rule of Interpretation
62
Which of the following implies that omissions in a statute cannot as a general rule be supplied by construction?
Answer
C. Casus Omissus
63
Which of the following statements is wrong?
Answer
D. None of the Above
64
A statute which consolidates the law on a particular subject at one place is called
Answer
B. Consolidating Statute
65
Which of the following statements is false?
Answer
D. The Finance Act is a permanent statute
66
Brief explanations which is found separated at the side of a Section
Answer
A. Marginal Notes
67
Non obstante means
Answer
B. Notwithstanding anything to the Contrary in this or any Other Act
68
Making Law like decisions by judiciary may be referred as
Answer
A. Judicial Legislation
69
Greatest happiness principle refers to
Answer
D. Utilitarian Theory
70
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Answer
C. Obitur Dicta means Let the decision stand
71
The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, extends in ļ¬rst instance to the whole of India except:
Answer
A. except the territories which, Immediately before the 1st November, 1956 were comprised in Part B States or in the States of Bombay, Punjab and Delhi
72
Where in a Transfer of Property, an interest is created absolutely in favour of any person though the terms of the transfer direct that such interest shall be applied or enjoyed by him in a particular member:
Answer
A. he shall be entitled to receive and dispose of such interest as if there were no such direction
73
Every person competent to contract can "transfer" the property under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882,
Answer
D. both (1) and (2) are correct
74
X transfers Rs. 500 to Y on condition that he Shall execute-a certain lease within three months after Y's death, and, if he should neglect to do so, to Z. If Y dies in X's life time.
Answer
A. the disposition in favour of Z takes eļ¬ect
75
Some conditions must be fulļ¬lled before the equity provided in section 51, arises (1) The person evicted must be transferee. (2) The person must have made the improvements believing in good faith that he was absolutely entitled.
Answer
C. both (1) and (2) are correct
76
Under the provisions of section 18 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. the provisions of some sections shall not apply in case of a transfer of property for the beneļ¬t of the public in the advancement of religion, knowledge, commerce, health, safety or any other object beneļ¬cial to mankind. These sections are:
Answer
B. 14, 16 and 17
77
Which of these is a registered geographical indication?
Answer
C. Champagne
78
The term of copyright for an author lasts how long?
Answer
D. The life of the author plus 60 years
79
What is the meaning of a "Process Patent"?
Answer
B. Manufacturing process is patented
80
Which Section of Patent Act, 1970 deals with termination of compulsory licences?
Answer
A. Section 94
81
The Grievance Redressal Committee under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 is meant primarily for:
Answer
B. Resolution of disputes arising out of individual grievances
82
Match the social security chapter with its general applicability: Item Chapter I Employeesā Provident Fund II Employeesā State Insurance III Gratuity Which option is correctly matched?
Answer
A. I - 20 or more employees: II - 10 or more persons: III - shops or establishments with 10 or more employees
83
Which of the following is not speciļ¬cally listed as sexual harassment under the POSH Act, 2013?
Answer
D. Technical assessment of work performance without sexual content
84
A registered Trade Union is a body corporate with perpetual succession, common seal, power to hold property, and power to sue and be sued.
Answer
A. True
85
Consider the following statements under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020: I. If only one registered Trade Union functions in an industrial establishment, it may be recognised as the sole negotiating union. II. Where more than one registered Trade Union functions, the union having 51% or more workers on the muster roll may be recognised as negotiating union. III. Negotiating council representation is connected with support of every 20% of workers. Which is correct?
Answer
D. I, II and III
86
Which table correctly states the time limit for payment of wages under the Code on Wages, 2019?
Answer
A. Daily - end of shift; Weekly - last working day of week; Monthly - before expiry of seventh day of succeeding month
87
Consider the following statements on maternity beneļ¬t under the Code on Social Security, 2020: I. A woman must have actually worked for at least 80 days in the 12 months immediately preceding the expected delivery date. II. The general maximum period of maternity beneļ¬t is 26 weeks. III. Not more than 9 weeks shall precede the expected date of delivery. Which is correct?
Answer
B. I and II only
88
An employee suļ¬ers an employment injury causing partial disablement for two days only. Under the employeesā compensation provisions, the employer is not liable where the injury does not result in total or partial disablement for a period exceeding:
Answer
C. 3 days
89
An establishment has fewer than ten workers and no Internal Committee. A woman makes a complaint of sexual harassment against the employer himself. Which forum is competent to receive the complaint?
Answer
C. Local Committee constituted by the District Oļ¬cer
90
For the deļ¬nition of āwagesā under the Code on Wages, 2019, which option correctly identiļ¬es included components?
Answer
A. Basic pay, dearness allowance and retaining allowance
91
Match the correct options A. Chartered Company 1. Company incorporated outside India having place of business in India B. Statuary Company 2. Company in which not less than 51Ā°% of paid-up share capital is held by the Government C. Government Company 3. The crown in exercise of royal prerogative can create a company by grant of charter to a person D. Foreign Company 4. Company incorporated by means of special act of the parliament or the State legislature
Answer
A. ABCD 3421
92
Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. transmission of shares?
Answer
A. It is the result of deliberate act of the transfer
93
Match the following Doctrines with the land mark cases associated with them A. Doctrine 1. Solomon vs. Solomon & Co. Ltd. of Indoor management B. Doctrine of Constructive notice 2. Kotla Venkataswamy vs. Rama Murthy C. Doctrine of Separate legal 3. Royal British Bank vs. Turquand personality D. Doctrine of ultra vires 4. Ashbury Railway carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. Vs. Riche
Answer
A. ABCD 3214
94
Which of the following is not true about DIN under The Companies Act, 2013?
Answer
D. Every director shall apply fresh for DIN on joining new company
95
What is a declaration of solvency in Winding up proceedings?
Answer
B. A statement by a company that is able to Pay its debts
96
____________ means dealing in securities of a company based on unpublished price sensitive information by a person who could be privy to such information and use it to secure a price advantage as compared to general investors.
Answer
C. Insider trading
97
Which of the following judgment is not related to prevention of oppression & mismanagement in the aļ¬airs of company?
Answer
D. Life Insurance Corporation of India vs. Escorts Ltd. & Others
98
Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. shares?
Answer
B. Preference shareholders and equity Share holders have equal right to vote in companies decision making when the company is a going concern
99
As per section 2(60) of The Companies Act, 2013 oļ¬cer who is in default means:
Answer
A. Whole time director, key managerial personnel
100
As per section 2(72) of The Companies Act, 2013 Public Financial Institution means:
Answer
D. All of above
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.