| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Law - Paper II |
|---|---|
| Department | Kerala Collegiate Education |
| Question Paper Code | 089/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 569/2024 |
| Date of Test | 11 August 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Article 350A of the Indian Constitution imposes which of the following duties on the State?
Answer
C. To provide primary education in the mother tongue of linguistic minority children
2
Under Article 343 of the Indian Constitution, for how long was English to continue as an associate oļ¬cial language along with Hindi and which legislative Act extended its use beyond this period?
Answer
B. 15 years; Oļ¬cial Languages Act, 1963
3
Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the applicability of Certiorari?
Answer
D. In issuing writ of certiorari, the Court sits as a court of appeal over the judicial or quasi-judicial authority
4
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
C. Article 338 B, inserted by the Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 provides for establishing National Commission for Backward Classes, for the socially and economically backward classes
5
Originally, the Election Commission of India was a
Answer
C. Single-member body
6
Reservation of seats in Private Educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by
Answer
A. Article 15(5) of the Constitution
7
Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
Answer
C. Powers, authorities and responsibilities of panchayat endowed to it by state legislature
8
The Finance Commission gives recommendations to the President as to i. Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between union and states ii. Principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of revenues of states iii. Measures needed to augment the consolidated funds of a state to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities iv. Grant to neighbouring countries in case of natural calamity
Answer
C. i, ii and iii
9
Which of the following members become ineligible for appointment in government service after the completion of their tenure? i. Comptroller and Auditor General ii. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission iii. Attorney General of India iv. Solicitor General of India
Answer
B. Only i and ii
10
The principal of constitutionalism -
Answer
C. Advocates authoritarian governance
11
Which of the following is not included in the deļ¬nition of "law" under Article 13(3)(a)?
Answer
D. A recognised religious practice
12
In which of the following matters, the Union Public Service Commission is not required to be consulted? i. Disciplinary matters aļ¬ecting a person serving under the government ii. Claims by or in respect of a person who has served the government iii. Manner in which government is empowered to make reservation in the posts for government service iv. Matters relating to the methods of recruitment to the civil service
Answer
B. only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
13
Who of the following decides if a question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
Answer
D. Speaker of House of People
14
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the relationship between constitutional law and administrative law? i. Constitutional law deals with the structure of the legislature, executive and judiciary and administrative law deals with the details of the functions of legislature, executive and judiciary ii. Constitutional law is related with the organization and functions of the government and administrative law deals with those functions in motion of that organization iii. Constitutional law and administrative law are part of public law in modern state
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii and iii)
15
The signiļ¬cance of the delegated legislation has now been transformed from 'Red light theory' to 'Green light theory' under which of the following statement/statements? i. The theory of Laissez faire and Police state ii. The concept of Egalitarian, state iii. The concept of welfare state
Answer
B. Only (ii and iii)
16
Which of the following statement is correct about the common law system for the doctrine of 'Natural Justice' to control the administrative authorities from abuse or misuse of power? i. Audi Alteram Partem and speaking order ii. Fair play in action and reasoned decision iii. Audi Alteram Partem and nemo judex in Causa Sua
Answer
C. only (iii)
17
'The mechanism of judicial control plays a vital role at the time of exercising administrative discretion by the administrative authority, if the court consider that exercise of discretion is improper? Which of the following statement is/are correct on the basis of above explanation about improper exercise of discretion? i. as the discretionary power has not been exercised in a particular manner. ii. 'taking irrelevant considerations into account' iii. neglecting to take into consideration relevant factors.
Answer
C. only (ii and iii)
18
Which of the following statement is/are correct about ideals of rule of law considered under International Commission of Jurists (Delhi Declaration, 1959)? i. rule of law upholds the dignity of an individual through recognition of civil or political as well as social, economical, educational and cultural conditions ii. strong and eļ¬cient government for maintaining law and order iii. independence of judiciary and legal profession
Answer
D. all of the above (i, ii and iii)
19
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the doctrine of promissory estoppel? i. It is established as its strong foundation in fair dealing. ii. It is used as a rule of evidence and aptly treated as a substantive rule of law iii. It is termed as 'means to repose'.
Answer
C. all of the above (i, ii and iii)
20
Which is/are the following grounds of substantive ultravires where the delegated legislation is treated as invalid? i. Where delegated legislation is consistent with parent act and it bars sub- delegation at the point of permissible limit ii. Delegated legislation rejects judicial review iii. Delegated legislation has been made without following the guidelines to general laws ii.
Answer
C. only (ii and iii)
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the doctrine of delegated legislation supports legitimate expectation, a value based principle to enforce sound administration in the society i. Under the principles of reasonableness as well as fairness ii. Doctrine of Green light theory iii. Principle of estoppel.
Answer
A. only (i and ii)
22
In what manner the doctrine of proportionality should be considered for judging the reasonability of decision of administrative authorities? i. through balancing test ii. through necessity test iii. both balancing and necessity are applicable here
Answer
A. only (i and ii)
23
Are Central Vigilance Commission and the Ombudsman mechanism same for prevention of corruption? Which is/are correct from the statements are given below : i. Central vigilance commission has much stronger status than the ombudsman ii. Central vigilance commission has much weaker status than the ombudsman iii. Central vigilance commission and ombudsman are equal status
Answer
B. only ii
24
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the comparison between injunction and mandamus? i. injunction has same eļ¬ect and popular as the writ of Mandamus ii. writ of mandamus is more eļ¬ective and popular remedy against arbitrary action of administrative authority. iii. injunction can be termed as dilatory remedy, where as writ of mandamus is comparatively more expeditions
Answer
B. only (ii and iii)
25
Which are true from the following statement as : "Right to information promotes 'openness' as a powerful check on the abuse or misuse of power by the Government". i. there should have a balance between 'secrecy' and 'openness' ii. democracy encourages the participation in government by the people iii. openness in the key factors with regard to ensure an individual regarding governmental information for exercising its powers in fair manner
Answer
D. all of the above (i, ii and iii)
26
A intentionally causes Z's death, partly by illegally omitting to give Z good, and partly by beating Z. Which oļ¬ence has A committed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Answer
B. Murder
27
In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for how many years under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Answer
C. 20
28
Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, prescribes the community service?
Answer
C. Section 4(f)
29
Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 says that nothing is an oļ¬ence which is done by a child under seven years of age?
Answer
B. Section 20
30
Which of the following is the punishment prescribed for the oļ¬ence of murder by life-convict under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Answer
C. Death Sentence or with imprisonment for life
31
What is the maximum imprisonment prescribed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, for the act of hiring, employing or engaging a child to commit an oļ¬ence?
Answer
B. 10 years
32
Whoever, by words either spoken or written or by signs or by visible representation or through electronic communication or otherwise, makes or publishes false or misleading information, jeopardising the sovereignty, unity and integrity or security of India in any place or worship, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to
Answer
C. Five years and shall also be liable to ļ¬ne
33
Which among the following sections of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, deļ¬nes organised crime?
Answer
A. Section 111
34
Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Answer
Question Cancelled
35
Which of the following section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaces the Sedition Law?
Answer
B. Section 152
36
A, being an oļ¬cer directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in Z's favour by a Court, knowingly disobeys that direction of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to Z. A, is punishable under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
Answer
B. Section 198
37
Which of the following does not amount to sexual harassment under Section 75 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?
Answer
D. Assault or use of criminal force
38
What is the minimum punishment prescribed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, for the oļ¬ence of dowry death?
Answer
B. Seven years
39
The following court has been discontinued with the enactment of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
Answer
A. Assistant Sessions
40
Identify the case that does not involve the area of a child in conļ¬ict with law
Answer
C. Mohammad Giasuddin v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1977)
41
In computing the period of days of remand to custody, the day the remand order is made and the day the accused is ordered to be produced before the court
Answer
B. both shall be included
42
A person is eligible to be appointed as a Public Prosecutor only if he has been in practice as an advocate
Answer
B. for a period of not less than 7 years
43
In case of consecutive sentences, in no case shall such person be sentenced to imprisonment for a longer period than
Answer
D. 20 years
44
Right of an arrested person to meet an advocate of his choice is
Answer
C. extends during, though not throughout, the interrogation
45
A summons, where a person cannot be found, may be served on
Answer
C. any adult member of his family
46
A private person may arrest any person who
Answer
A. commits a non bailable and cognizable oļ¬ence in his presence
47
Where it appears that the accused has not suļ¬cient means to engage an advocate, an advocate for his defence at the expense of the State
Answer
D. shall be assigned in trial or appeal stage by any court
48
A charge once framed by the Magistrate/Court
Answer
C. Can be altered at any time before judgment
49
Where a person has absconded to evade trial and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him
Answer
D. all of the above
50
The appropriate Government may, without the consent of the person sentenced, commute a sentence of imprisonment for life
Answer
A. for imprisonment for a term not less than seven years
51
Identify the correct option relating to relevancy i. The question is, whether 'A' robbed 'B'. The facts that, shortly before the robbery, 'B' went to a fair with money in his possession and that he showed it, or mentioned the fact that he had it, to third person is ___________. ii. 'A' sues 'B' for damage done by a dog of 'B's, which 'B' knew to be ferocious. The fact that the dog had previously bitten 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' and that they had made complaints to 'B' is ________. iii. Evidence of character or previous sexual experience is _______ in certain cases iv. The person accused is of a good character is __________ at the time of sentencing. v. The fact that the accused has a bad character is _________, unless evidence has been given that he has a good character
Answer
D. Relevant; Relevant; Not Relevant; Relevant; Irrelevant
52
Identify the correct option as to 'True or False' from the statement given below; as per the provision and decisions of Law of Evidence : i. Municipal Birth Register is a public document ii. Ballot paper is a public document iii. Aļ¬davits and letters are private document iv. Maps by government is a public document
Answer
A. True; True; True; True
53
As decided by the Supreme Court in Jagdev Singh v. Pratap Singh AIR 1965 SC 183, in an election petition case, the petitioner must prove the election oļ¬ences alleged to have been committed beyond all reasonable doubt and not merely based on preponderance of probability. However, in general and based on judgments under various laws, the Supreme Court of India, time and again has observed that "the Standard required in the other types of cases have varied degrees." Identify the Correct option from the following that are generally applied by courts relating to 'Standard of Proof' : i. In civil cases, the standard is Preponderance of probability ii. In criminal cases, when the accused pleads a general defence, the standard is preponderance of probability iii. In all criminal cases including special and local laws, the standard is beyond all reasonable doubt iv. In certain oļ¬ences, like that of Reverse Burden cases, the standard is higher than preponderance of probability and lower than beyond reasonable doubt
Answer
D. i, ii, iii and iv are correct
54
The following statements are relevant part of res gestae as per he provision under the BSA, 2023; however, one of the option does not qualify to be part of this rule. Identify
Answer
C. Section 4 and remarks made by a by- stander without spontaneity
55
One of the following questions is Not a leading question. Identify
Answer
B. "How would you describe John's behaviour towards you"?
56
The provisions under the BSA, 2023 that empowers the judge to put questions or order production as per Section 168 is a nature of ________, to bring out the truth.
Answer
A. Inquisitorial system
57
Technical rules of Evidence are Not applicable to one of the following option, as per the provision of the BSA. Identify : i. Arbitration proceedings ii. Aļ¬davits iii. Administrative Tribunals iv. Industrial Tribunals
Answer
B. (i) and (ii) are correct
58
Fill in the blanks with appropriate words as per the provision relating to Digital and Primary Evidence : i. Where an electronic or digital record is created or stored and such storage occurs simultaneously or sequentially in _________ ļ¬les, each such ļ¬le is primary evidence ii. Where an electronic or digital record is produced from proper custody, such electronic and digital record is primary evidence unless it is ___________ iii. Where a video recording is simultaneously stored in electronic form and transmitted or broadcasted or transferred to another, each of the _________ recordings is primary evidence. iv. Where an electronic or digital record is stored in multiple storage spaces in a computer resource, each such automated storage, including______ ļ¬les, is primary evidence
Answer
B. multiple; disputed; stored; temporary
59
Identify one illustration among the following, where the duty to prove is INCORRECT.
Answer
A. 'A' is charged with travelling in a train without a ticket by 'B', the Ticket Collector. The burden of proof is on 'B'.
60
One of the following statement is False. Identify.
Answer
C. Husband and wife can be compelled to be witness against each other at any time and in any proceedings
61
The Information Technology Act 2000 was enacted to make Indian cyber Law in tune with which International model law
Answer
A. Model Law on E-Commerce (MLEC)
62
The main similarity or diļ¬erence between Digital Signature and Electronic Signature
Answer
A. Digital signature is technology speciļ¬c where as electronic signature is technology neutral
63
Section 10 A of the Information Technology Act 2000 inserted by the (Amendment) Act 2008, conferred validity on e-contracts. It means
Answer
C. e-contracts were valid impliedly between 2000-2008 and the IT (Amendment) Act 2008 conferred expressed validity on e contracts
64
As per section 13 of the Information Technology Act 2000, e-record is deemed received by the addressee when
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
65
Which statement is true regarding the Root Certifying Authority of India - i. It was established the Controller of The Certifying Authority of India. ii. It certiļ¬es the public key of the Certifying Authority. iii It issues licence to The certifying authority in X.509 certiļ¬cates
Answer
B. i, ii and iii are correct
66
Which statement is/are true regarding The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 i Under the rules, social media intermediaries, with registered users in India above a notiļ¬ed threshold, have been classiļ¬ed as Signiļ¬cant Social Media Intermediaries (SSMIS) ii. Under the Rules SSMI's are required to observe certain additional due diligence as compared to regular social media intermediaries such as appointing a chief compliance oļ¬cer, a grievance oļ¬cer and a nodal contact person, all residing in India and being able to identify the ļ¬rst originator of a message. iii. The rules prescribe a framework for the regulation of content by online publishers of news and current aļ¬airs content and curated audio-visual content
Answer
B. i, ii and iii are correct
67
The Central Government may, under sec 69A of The Information Technology Act, 2000 may issue an order to
Answer
C. Block access to any information on any computer resource
68
The IT Act 2000 amended various sections of which of the following acts?
Answer
D. All of the above
69
Which section of IT Act deals with Cyber terrorism?
Answer
C. Section 66F
70
Under what condition, can organizations process personal data without consent of a data principal under the DPDP Act, 2023?
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
71
A landlord may apply to the Rent Control Court for an order directing the tenant to put the landlord in possession of the building (i) If the tenant, without the consent of the landlord, transfers his right under the lease or sublets the entire building or any portion thereof, if the lease does not confer on him any right to do so; or (ii) If the tenant uses the building in such a manner as to destroy or reduce its value or utility materially and permanently (ii) If the tenant already has in his possession a building or subsequently acquires possession of or puts up a building, reasonably suļ¬cient for his requirements in the same city, town or village or (iv) If the building is in such a condition that it needs reconstruction, and if the landlord requires bonaļ¬de reconstruction of the same
Answer
A. All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
72
In ļ¬xing the fair rent, under the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, the Court shall take into account the following considerations
Answer
C. Either (1) or (2)
73
The Social Impact Assessment study under the RFCTLAR Act, 2013 includes i. Assessment as to whether the proposed acquisition serves a public purpose ii. Estimation of aļ¬ected families and the number of families among them likely to be displaced iii. Extent of lands, public and private, houses, settlements and other common properties likely to be aļ¬ected by the proposed acquisition. iv. Whether the extent of land proposed for acquisition is the absolute bare minimum extent needed for the project
Answer
A. All of the above
74
Publication of preliminary notiļ¬cation under the RFCTLAR Act, 2013, is to be made i. in the Oļ¬cial Gazette. ii. in two daily newspapers circulating in the locality of such area, of which one shall be in the regional language. iii. in the local language in the Panchayat, Municipality or Municipal Corporation, the case may be and in the oļ¬ces of the District Collector, the Sub-Divisional Magistrate, and the Tehsil. iv. uploaded on the website of the appropriate Government and in the aļ¬ected areas
Answer
A. all of the above
75
According to the Land Assignment Act, "assignment" includes
Answer
B. Transfer of land by way of lease and a grant of license for the use of land
76
What is the ceiling limit for land ownership for a family with more than ļ¬ve members under the Kerala Land Reforms Act?
Answer
D. 20 Standard Acres
77
The Kerala Land Conservancy Act, 1957, primarily aims to
Answer
B. Check unauthorised occupation of government lands
78
According to Section 44 of the Kerala Revenue Recovery Act, what happens if a defaulter transfers or enters into an agreement for his property after receiving a demand notice? i. The transfer or agreement is valid and binding on the government ii. The transfer or agreement is not binding on the government iii. The government may accept the transfer or agreement after paying a penalty. iv. The transfer or agreement is subject to the approval of the Revenue Divisional Oļ¬cer.
Answer
C. only (ii) is correct
79
What does "unnotiļ¬ed land" refer to in the context of the Kerala Conservation of Paddy Land and Wetland Act?
Answer
B. Land that is not included in the data bank but is categorized as paddy land or wetland in the basic tax register
80
According to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, which of the following is classiļ¬ed as a minor mineral?
Answer
C. Sand
81
Consider the following statements : 1. The NGT has applied the 'polluter pays' principle in several landmark decisions 2. NGT's decisions can be reviewed by High Courts only in exceptional cases, but the constitutional power remains intact 3. The NGT lacks jurisdiction over environmental clearances granted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) Which of the above is/are correct?
Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
82
What is a "Critical Wildlife Habitat" (CWH) as per the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
Answer
C. An area in a National Park/Sanctuary where forest dwellers' rights may be modiļ¬ed under strict conditions
83
Consider the following statements : 1. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 to include the right to a wholesome environment 2. In Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, the court upheld the "polluter pays" principle. 3. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Ganga pollution case), the court ruled that environmental rights are subordinate to industrial development Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
84
Which fund is established under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 to provide relief to the victims in case the insurance or owner's funds are not suļ¬cient?
Answer
C. Environment Relief Fund (ERF)
85
Under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, which of the following is true?
Answer
C. Consent of the state pollution control board is required before establishing any industry likely to discharge sewage
86
Consider the following statement 1. The Stockholm Declaration (1972) is the ļ¬rst important international document to recognize the environmental right 2. The Rio Declaration (1992) established legally binding targets for sustainable development 3. The principle of inter-generational equity reļ¬ected in both national as well as international environmental laws Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer
B. 1 and 3 only
87
Consider the following statements : 1. Hazardous industries have been relocated by Indian courts to protect public health 2. The judiciary has stressed the signiļ¬cance of Environmental Impact Assessment EIA in grant of approval to project 3. The courts have declined to recognize or enforce international environmental principles in the absence of implementing legislation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
88
Consider the following statements : 1. Ecocide has been applied as legal concept in a few national laws such as Vietnam and Russia 2. The UN General Assembly oļ¬cially recognized ecocide as a legal term in 2022 3. The term "ecocide" was ļ¬rst related to the environmental devastation caused during the Vietnam war Which of the above is are correct?
Answer
C. 1 and 3 only
89
Under which provision of the Constitution do the local bodies are empowered to function as a self-government including land governance? Choose the correct statement
Answer
C. Article 243 G
90
Which of the following is TRUE regarding corporate responsibility under Green Criminology?
Answer
D. Legal corporate activities can still cause signiļ¬cant environmental damage and be studied as green crimes
91
With reference to professional misconduct under the Advocates Act, 1961, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? i. Breach of client's conļ¬dence is an act of misconduct ii. Advocates may publish any court decision without client's consent. iii. Charging excessive fees amounts to misconduct.
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
As to the structure of the Bar Council of India under the Advocates Act, 1961 which is/are correct? i. The BCI consists of the Attorney General as ex-oļ¬cio member. ii. There are 25 elected members representing the States and Union Territories iii. The Vice-Chairman is elected by the council from among its members
Answer
C. i and iii only
93
Concerning the Bar council of India's role in legal education, which is/are correct? i. It recognizes degrees from foreign universities ii. It prescribes minimum standards of staļ¬, infrastructure and library iii. It conducts inspections of every law college once every ļ¬ve years
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
With regard to designation of senior advocates under the Kerala High Court Rules, which statement(s) is/are true? i. Only advocates with at least 10 years' practice are eligible to apply ii. Designation is conferred by the High Court after peer recommendations iii. Designated senior advocates can appear anywhere in India free of fee restrictions
Answer
A. i and ii only
95
Under the Advocates Act, 1961, which provisions(s) empowers State Bar Councils to take disciplinary action? i. Section 35 ii. Section 36 iii. Section 49
Answer
A. i only
96
Assertion (A) : Criminal contempt includes scandalising the authority of the court Reason (R) : Truth is always a valid defence to a charge of criminal contempt under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 From these statement decide :
Answer
C. A is true, but R is false
97
With reference to the Notaries Act, 1952 which statement(s) is/are correct? i. Only a government servant can be appointed notary ii. Appointment is by the Central Government iii. A notary's seal must bear his name, oļ¬ce and place
Answer
C. iii only
98
As to "applied research" in the legal context, which is/are correct? i. It addresses immediate legal problems. ii. It never contributes to theory building iii. It often uses empirical method
Answer
A. i and iii only
99
With respect to research methods, which statement(s) is/are correct? i. Doctrinal research relies on case law and statutes only ii. Empirical research gathers data through surveys and interviews iii. comparative research is not used in law.
Answer
Question Cancelled
100
Which of the following are ethical requirements in legal research? i. obtaining informed consent from interviewers ii. plagiarism is permissible if source is cited iii. data anonymity where required
Answer
A. i and iii only
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