| Post Name | Assistant Professor In Law - Paper II |
|---|---|
| Department | Collegiate Education (Law Colleges) |
| Question Paper Code | 124/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 033/2025 |
| Date of Test | 16 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a State for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without the previous sanction of the President.2. No bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament for altering the name of a State without the recommendation of the President of India and the Governor of that State. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer
A. 1 only
2
In the case of Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018), the Supreme Court of India by a majority of 4:1, held that the traditional ban on women of menstruating age (10-50 years) entering the Sabarimala temple in Kerala is unconstitutional. The dissenting opinion in this case was delivered by Justice:
Answer
C. Indu Malhotra
3
Consider the following statements: Parliamentary privileges are available to 1. The Attorney General, when he participates in the proceedings of the House of the People. 2. Minister's speech made in the House of which he is not a member. 3. An individual who is called upon to testify before the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer
B. 1 and 2
4
In the case of X v. The Principal Secretary, Health and Family Welfare Department, Govt. NCT of Delhi (2022) the Supreme Court of India recognised: (i) The right to reproductive autonomy (ii) The right to dignity (iii) Purposive interpretation of Rule 3B of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Rules 2003 Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
5
The President of India may obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court of India under Article 143(1) if it appears to the President that a question of law has arisen or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain such opinion, by referring the question to the Supreme Court. (i) The Supreme Court cannot decline to answer the reference. (ii) The Supreme Court may decline to answer the reference in any circumstance (iii) The Supreme Court may decline to answer the reference if it is held to be improper, inadvisable and undesirable, for the questions have no relation whatsoever with any of the provisions of the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?
Answer
A. (i)
6
The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is concerned with the
Answer
C. Powers and functions of the Panchayat Raj Institutions
7
Which one of the following amendments is/are correct in relation to the Constitution (Twenty Fourth Amendment) Act, 1971? (i) Article 368- Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure thereof (ii) Article 368 (3)- Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under Article (iii) Article 13(4) -Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under Article 368
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
8
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Attorney General of India?
Answer
B. He may be removed from his office in the same manner and on the same ground as of the judge of the Supreme Court of India
9
Which one of the following statements is correct? The Speaker of the House of People may be removed from his office
Answer
C. by a resolution of the House of the People moved after 14 days' clear notice and passed by the majority of all the then members of the House
10
Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India shall be responsible for conducting elections to: (i) Parliament and State Legislature (ii) President and Vice-President (iii) Zilla Parishad and Panchayats (iv) Municipal Corporations and Municipal Committees Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Answer
B. (i) and (ii)
11
Persons who fall outside the male/female gender binary, fall within the expression ‘person’ under Article 14 as a third gender. It was held in the case of:
Answer
D. National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
12
Which one of the following is the language of the Union of India?
Answer
B. Hindi in Devanagari script
13
The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the State list:
Answer
D. in all the above cases
14
‘‘Administrative law, according to Kenneth Culp Davis, a leading American Scholar, is the law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative agencies, including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action’’. Which of the following statements are correct about an ‘administrative agency’, according to Davis? (i) It is a governmental authority other than a court. (ii) It affects the rights of private parties through either adjudication or rule-making. (iii) It is a governmental authority other than a legislative body.
Answer
D. All of the above (i) , (ii) & (iii)
15
It is a settled principle of law that the ‘‘Essential functions cannot be delegated’’. Which of the following is not considered as an essential function of the legislature?
Answer
D. None of the above
16
Which one of the following is not a ground of judicial review of administrative discretion under the head of failure to exercise discretion?
Answer
B. exercise of discretion for an improper purpose
17
The committee on Ministers ‘Powers’ (Donough more committee in its report (1932) had suggested that the administrative adjudication has all the characteristics of a judicial decision except :
Answer
D. that it strictly applies law to the facts to get a decision
18
Which of the following is/are correct in relation to tests of bias? (i) In cases of pecuniary bias reasonable suspicion test of bias is applied (ii) In cases of personal bias reasonable suspicion of bias test is applied (iii) In real likelihoodness of bias higher degree of proof is required.
Answer
C. All the above (i), (ii) & (iii)
19
‘‘Where a statute expressly provides the hearing in one situation but it is silent in other situation’’. Which of the following is correct in this regard?
Answer
B. After the change in judicial stance, legislative silence is not taken as legislative denial of hearing
20
The term ‘Sovereign function’ means :
Answer
C. A function that cannot be performed by an individual unless it is delegated specifically
21
Which of the following statement is/are correct about the jurisdiction of Lokpal under the provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013? (i) Lokpal can conduct inquiry in a matter of corruption against a person who has been Prime Minister. (ii) It cannot conduct an inquiry if the allegation of corruption against the Prime Minister is selected to Public order. (iii) A matter in respect of which a complaint has been made to the Lokpal under the above Act can be referred for inquiry under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952
Answer
C. Only (i) & (ii)
22
Which of the following information cannot be given under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005? (i) Information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the Sovereignty and integrity of India. (ii) Information received in confidence from foreign Government. (iii) Information the disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the relation with foreign state.
Answer
D. All the above (i), (ii) & (iii)
23
Which of the following statements are not true relation to Article 311 of the Constitution of India? (i) After inquiry if penalty is imposed on the person, he shall be heard on the penalty proposed. (ii) Clause (2) of Article 311 does not apply where a person is dismissed on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge. (iii) If it is found by the authority that it is not seasonably practicable to hold inquiry his decision is not final. (iv) Security of state is no ground to with hold the inquiry.
Answer
C. Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
24
Choose a wrong combination from the options given below in relation to provisions of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985 :
Answer
D. Section 14 – Jurisdiction of state Administrative Tribunals
25
In connection with the provisions of the Kerala State Right to service Act, 2012, choose the right combination from the options given below :
Answer
C. Section 5 – Duty of the designated officer
26
How were the members of Constituent Assembly selected? Choose the correct option.
Answer
B. The members of Constituent Assembly were chosen by indirect elections as per Cabinet Mission’s Recommendations
27
In relation to the right to freedom of religion, the State is NOT empowered to enact laws concerning which of the following?
Answer
B. The State has the power to make any law to make Hindu religious institutions of public character open to all other religions
28
Which of the following statements is correct about the of term of the President of India? The President-
Answer
D. Shall continue to hold office after expiration of his term, until his successor enters upon his office
29
In which of the following cases appeal shall NOT lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court, if the High Court-
Answer
A. Has on appeal reversed an order of conviction and ordered acquittal of an accused person.
30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the remedy of writs?
Answer
D. Unavailable where the dispute involves determination of disputed questions of fact, unless there is violation of fundamental rights
31
Which of the following powers cannot be conferred upon Panchayats by the State Legislature, through law making?
Answer
B. Providing for making such grants-in-aid to the Panchayat from the Contingency Fund of the State
32
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?
Answer
D. Clauses (4) & (5) of Article 368 that preclude judicial review of any amendment made under Article 368, have been struck down and repealed
33
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the Attorney General of India? The Attorney General of India-
Answer
B. Has the right to participate and vote in the proceedings of any Committee of the Parliament, as a named member
34
Mark the incorrect statement-
Answer
C. The President determines the qualifications requisite for the appointment as members of Finance Commission
35
According to Article 348 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is NOT correct-
Answer
D. The Governor, with the previous consent of the President may authorise the High Court to deliver or pass a judgement, order or decree in Hindi or any language used for official purpose in the State
36
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Public Interest litigations?
Answer
D. There must be a legal wrong caused to indeterminate class of persons unable to approach the court due to social & economical disability
37
Which of the following statements best describes the constitutional position regarding the horizontal application of Fundamental Rights in India?
Answer
C. Certain Fundamental Rights by their text or nature impose obligations upon private individuals in addition to the State
38
A State law on a Concurrent List subject conflicts with an earlier Parliamentary law. The State law has received Presidential assent under Article 254(2). In this regard which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
B. The State law prevails only within that State unless Parliament overrides it later
39
Which one of the following is correct?
Answer
C. No sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding three months shall be passed in the case of any conviction under Chapter XXII of BNSS
40
Where the High Court has, on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and convicted him and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for life or to imprisonment for a term of ten years or more-
Answer
C. He may appeal to the Supreme Court
41
The person seeking suspension of conviction should specifically draw the attention of the Appellate Court to the consequences that may arise if the conviction is not stayed held by the Supreme Court in-
Answer
A. Navjot singh Sidhu v. State of Punjab, AIR 2007 SC1003
42
A police report, under Section 193 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 may be deemed to be a complaint if-
Answer
C. investigation was made for a cognizable offence and during investigation non- cognizable offence was disclosed against the accused
43
Section 479 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, provides for grant of bail to an accused pending trial if-
Answer
C. he has undergone detention for one-half period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried
44
During trial a charge may be altered at any time-
Answer
A. Before judgment
45
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Answer
D. Investigation: Section 2(h)
46
“Too many appeals and revision are a bane of the Indian Judicial System, involving as it does sterile expense and delay and fruitless chase of perfection”. Justice Krishna Ayer made this observation in-
Answer
B. Sitaram v. State of U.P.
47
Section 3 of POCSO Act states-
Answer
A. Penetrative sexual assault
48
Which one of the following is true?
Answer
A. In every case in which the precise age of the accused person is relevant to the determination of the sentence or order to be passed, evidence shall be taken on the question and whenever necessary the opinion of a medical expert shall be obtained
49
According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, child in conflict with law means
Answer
B. a child who is alleged or found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of commission of such offence
50
Which one of the following is not a condition precedent to the release of an offender on probation under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
Answer
D. Amount of damage caused by the offender
51
Facts which, though not in issue, are so connected with a fact in issue or a relevant fact as to form part of the same transaction, are relevant, whether they occurred (i) At the same time and place (ii) At different times and places (iii) At the same time and place or at different times and places (iv) None of the above
Answer
C. (iii)
52
Choose the correct one (i) Admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions hereinafter contained (ii) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters admitted and they may not operate as estoppels under the provisions hereinafter contained (iii) Admissions are neither conclusive proof of the matters admitted nor may they operate as estoppels under the provisions hereinafter contained (iv) None of the above
Answer
A. (i)
53
From among the following facts which one The Court shall not take judicial notice (i) The territory of India (ii) International treaty agreement or convention with country or countries by India (iii) The national anthem of every country (iv) The rule of the road on land or at sea
Answer
C. (iii)
54
Identify the circumstance in which secondary evidence may not be given of the existence, condition, or contents of a document (i) When the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved (ii) When the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power of the of any person out of reach of, or not subject to, the process of the Court (iii) When the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable (iv) When the original is mortgaged in a bank
Answer
D. (iv)
55
If the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document (i) Its execution may be proved by other evidence (ii) Its execution may not be proved by any other evidence (iii) The court presumes the non execution of the document (iv) None of the above
Answer
A. (i)
56
When an electronic record is produced from proper custody and is more than __________years old, the court may presume that it is authentic and was duly executed and attested. (i) 12 years (ii) 11 years (iii) 10 years (iv) 5 years
Answer
D. (iv)
57
When the language used in a document is, on its face, ambiguous or defective, evidence ---------------- which would show its meaning or supply its defects. (i) May be given of facts (ii) May not be given of facts (iii) May be given of the circumstance (iv) May be inferred from the circumstance
Answer
B. (ii)
58
The burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on that person who ----------- if no evidence at all were given on either side (i) Would fail (ii) Would win (iii) Would get the decree (iv) None of the above
Answer
A. (i)
59
According to section 137 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 , a witness ___________ from answering any question, as to any matter relevant to the matter in issue in any suit or in any civil or criminal proceeding, upon the ground that the answer to such question will criminate, or that it will expose to a penalty or forfeiture of any kind. (i) Shall be excused (ii) Shall not be excused (iii) Shall be prohibited (iv) None of the above
Answer
B. (ii)
60
Leading questions must not, _____________, be asked in an examination-in- chief, or in a re-examination, except with the permission of the Court. (i) if irrelevant to the fact in issue (ii) if intended to testify the credibility of the witness (iii) if objected to by the adverse party (iv) None of the above
Answer
C. (iii)
61
The Information Technology Act, 2000 aims to
Answer
A. Provide Legal Recognition for Electronic Commerce
62
A system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and a public key to verify the digital signature is termed under the information Technology Act, 2000 as
Answer
B. Asymmetric Crypto System
63
The authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method or procedure in accordance with section 3 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 is
Answer
D. Digital Signature
64
The term ‘hash function’ refers an algorithm mapping or translation of one sequence of bits into another, generally smaller, set known as ‘hash result’ such that an electronic record yields the same hash result every time the algorithm is executed with the same electronic record as its input making it computationally infeasible (i) to derive or reconstruct the original electronic record from the hash result produced by the algorithm. (ii) that two electronic records can produce the same hash result using the algorithm.” From above statement, which is correct under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
65
Where in any law for the time being in force, there is a provision for audit of documents, records or information?
Answer
B. that provision shall also be applicable for audit of documents, records or information processed and maintained in the electronic form
66
Where any Digital signature Certificate has been accepted by a subscriber, who shall generate that key pair by applying the Security Procedure?
Answer
D. The Subscriber
67
A person knowingly or intentionally conceals or destroy code or alters or causes another to do the same related to any computer or computer system. Will it be treated as offence?
Answer
A. Yes. under the Information Technology Act
68
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 and Amended Rules, 2023 and 2026 are very significant related to accountability of intermediaries and performance of duties. And ‘due diligence by an intermediary’ is applicable to
Answer
C. An intermediary, including a social media intermediary, a significant social media intermediary and an online gaming intermediary, shall observe the due diligence guidelines while discharging its duties
69
‘The information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 is very significant for (i) Governing Artificial Intelligence generated content. (ii) Regulation of synthetically generated information (SGI) (iii) Governing synthetic media and accountability of intermediaries on digital platform (iv) Prevention and control of cybercrime. Which is the correct answer?
Answer
D. All of the above
70
Any unauthorized processing of personal data or accidental disclosure, acquisition, sharing, use, alteration, destruction or loss of access to personal data, that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of personal data will be treated as
Answer
D. Personal Data Breach
71
Which of the following statements is/are correct about facts as provided under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. 2023? (i) All facts need to be proved in any proceeding which the parties thereto or their agents agree to admit at the hearing. (ii) No fact needs to be proved in any proceeding which the parties thereto or their agents agree to admit at the hearing. (iii) All facts need to be proved in any proceeding which the parties thereto or their agents agree to admit before the hearing by any writing under their hands. (iv) No fact needs to be proved in any proceeding which the parties thereto or their agents agree to admit before the hearing by any writing under their hands.
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iv)
72
Certain goods were ordered from B to be delivered to A. A claims non- delivery. The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively. Which of the following statements is/are correct about relevant fact as provided under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. 2023? (i) Only delivery from A to B is a relevant fact. (ii) Only delivery from A to the first intermediate person is a relevant fact. (iii) Only delivery from the last intermediate person to B is a relevant fact. (iv) Each delivery is a relevant fact.
Answer
D. Only (iv)
73
Which of the following statements is/are correct about confession as provided under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) No confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence. (ii) No confession made by any person while he is in the custody of a police officer shall be proved against him. unless it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. (iii) No confession made to any consular officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence. (iv) No confession made by any person while he is in the custody of another shall be proved against him.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
74
Ajay is on his trial for the murder of Cora. There is evidence to show that Cora was murdered by Ajay and Barua. and that Barua said “Ajay and I murdered Cora,” Which of the following statements is/are correct about confession as provided under the Bharativa Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) This statement of Barua may not be taken into consideration by the Court against Ajay. (ii) This statement of Barua may be taken into consideration by the Court against Ajay. (iii) This statement of Barua may be taken into consideration by the Court against Ajay only if it is not a joint trial of Ajay and Barua for the murder of Cora. (iv) This statement of Barua may not be taken into consideration by the Court against Ajay if it is a joint trial of Ajay and Barua for the murder of Cora.
Answer
A. Only (i)
75
Statements, written or verbal. of relevant facts made by a person who is dead, are themselves relevant facts in certain cased as provided by which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) Section 25 (il) Section 26 (iii) Section 29 (iv) Section 30
Answer
B. Only (ii)
76
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, opinion of experts are relevant facts to be considered when the Court has to form an opinion upon which of the following:- (i) A point of foreign law (ii) A point of science or art, or any other field (iii) Identity of handwriting (iv) Identity of finger impressions
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
77
Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, Which of the following statements is correct in the context of criminal proceedings? (i) The fact that the person accused is of a good character, is relevant. (ii) The fact that the person accused is of a good character, is irrelevant. (iii) The fact of a previous conviction is relevant as evidence of bad character. (iv) The fact of a previous acquittal is relevant as evidence of bad character.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (iii)
78
Alex, a client, says to Bushan, an advocate - “I have committed forgery, and I wish you to defend me”. In this context, under the provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements is correct? (i) This communication is protected from disclosure. (ii) This communication is not protected from disclosure. (iii) The defence of a man known to be guilty is not a criminal purpose. (iv) The defence of a man known to be guilty is a criminal purpose.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
79
Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements is correct? Whenever any document is produced before any Court, Purporting to be a record given by a witness in a judicial proceeding, and purporting to be signed by any Judge the Court shall presume that: (i) The document is a forgery (ii) The document is genuine (iii) Such evidence was duly taken (iv) Such evidence was not duly taken
Answer
D. Only (ii) and (iii)
80
Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements is correct? (i) An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person. (ii) An accomplice shall not be a competent witness against an accused person. (iii) A conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. (iv) A conviction is illegal even if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice.
Answer
D. Only (i) and (iii)
81
Article 48A of the Constitution dealing with environment inserted by which Amendment of Indian Constitution?
Answer
D. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
82
Which international document considered as the Magana Carta of Environment Law in India?
Answer
A. Stockholm Declaration 1972
83
Ramsar Convention 1971 relating to which aspect
Answer
D. Conservation and protection of Wetland
84
Brundtland Commion Report 1987 related to
Answer
C. Sustainable Development
85
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) was adopted in which year
Answer
B. 1992
86
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960 in India stands for preventing cruelty against which Animals?
Answer
B. Domestic Animals and many animals under human control
87
Absolute liability principle applied by the court in which case?
Answer
A. M.C Mehta v. Union of India
88
Green Tribunal was constituted under Green Tribunal Act in India in which year?
Answer
B. 2010
89
In which case right to environment declared as fundamental right?
Answer
A. M.C Mehta v. Union of India
90
Rio Declaration 1992 contains 27 principle achieving for which object?
Answer
C. Sustainable Development
91
Which of the following are relevant facts when the question is whether Ajay’s father has a right to a fishery? (i) A formal deed that originally granted the fishery rights to Ajay’s ancestors. (ii) A legal document showing that Ajay’s father previously mortgaged the fishery. (iii) A later transfer of the fishery made by Ajay’s father that cannot be reconciled with its earlier mortgage. (iv) An instance when Ajay’s father was blocked by his neighbours from exercising his right.
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are relevant facts
92
Which of the following is a relevant fact, as is discernible from the context provided below? Context: Abdul is accused of the murder of Baiju by beating him. (i) Whatever was said by Abdul at the beating so as to form a part of the transaction. (ii) Whatever was done by the bystanders at the beating so as to form a part of the transaction. (iii) Whatever was said by Abdul so shortly before the beating so as to form a part of the transaction.
Answer
D. (i), (ii), and (iii) are relevant facts
93
Which of the following statements about admissions under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is correct?
Answer
B. Admissions not conclusive proof, but may estop
94
Which of the following confessions are irrelevant in criminal proceedings under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (unless specifically provided for)? (i) Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise. (ii) Confession made to a police officer. (iii) Confession made voluntarily before a Magistrate.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
95
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following statements are relevant? (i) Statement made by a person relating to the cause of his death. (ii) Statement made by a person who cannot be found. (iii) Statement made by a person who has become incapable of giving evidence. (iv) Statement made by a person whose attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expense.
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
96
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following are facts in issue when A is accused of the murder of B? (i) That A caused B’s death. (ii) That A intended to cause B’s death. (iii) That A received grave and sudden provocation from B. (iv) That A was incapable of knowing the nature of the act due to unsoundness of mind.
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
97
Which of the following are relevant facts under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) Motive for committing the offence. (ii) Preparation for committing the offence. (iii) Conduct of the accused after the offence. (iv) Conduct of the victim influencing the offence.
Answer
C. Only (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
98
Which of the following statements about oral evidence are correct under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) Oral evidence must be direct. (ii) Oral evidence may include electronic statements permitted by the Court. (iii) Oral evidence can be hearsay if corroborated. (iv) Oral evidence is admissible only if given by experts.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
99
Which of the following opinions are relevant under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023? (i) Opinion as to handwriting. (ii) Opinion as to existence of general custom. (iii) Opinion as to relationship. (iv) Evidence of character or previous sexual experience except where specifically excluded by Section 48.
Answer
D. (i). (ii), (iii), and (iv)
100
As per the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, on whom does the burden of proof ordinarily lie?
Answer
B. On the party who asserts a fact.
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