| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Medical Gastroenterology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 057/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 340/2023 |
| Date of Test | 23 May 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following genes is rarely mutated in Gastrointestinal malignancies?
Answer
D. VHL
2
Mechanism of action of Linaclotide is
Answer
B. Activates the Guanylate cyclase C receptor
3
Which of the following measures would have the best value in the assessment of his nutritional status in severe alcoholic hepatitis?
Answer
B. Mid arm muscle circumference
4
The least arterial bleeding rate to be detected in angiography is
Answer
A. 0.5 ml/min
5
The rebleeding risk in a Forrest Class III peptic ulcer is
Answer
D. 5%
6
The most common viral pathogen occurring in the first year post organ transplantation is
Answer
C. CMV
7
Gastric pace maker cells are located in
Answer
B. Proximal greater curvature
8
Which of the following statements is true regarding the hydrogen breath testing used in the diagnosis of SIBO?
Answer
C. Patients are advised to fast 12 hours prior to the test
9
Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma?
Answer
D. Opistorchis viverrini
10
Which is a favourable prognostic factor in a patient with GIST?
Answer
C. Mitotic index of 1 per 50 HPF
11
Which is false regarding the genetic polymorphisms of NOD2/CARD15 gene?
Answer
B. They are associated with colonic location of the disease
12
Which of the following is true regarding Bevacizumab in colorectal cancer?
Answer
D. Associated with increased risk of stroke and GI perforation
13
Which of the following probiotic strains have the strongest evidence of efficacy in antibiotic induced diarrhoea?
Answer
A. Lactobacillusrhamnosus GG and Saccharomyces Boulardii
14
Which of the following conditions carry the highest risk of development of pancreatic cancer by age 70?
Answer
D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
15
The scientists who were awarded with the Nobel prize for discovery of H.Pylori is
Answer
B. Barry Marshall and Robin Warren
16
Dose of HBIG for post exposure prophylaxis for HBV in unvaccinated individuals is
Answer
B. 0.06 ml/kg body weight
17
Precore mutation in HBV occurs at nucleotide
Answer
C. 1896
18
Saroglitazar is a
Answer
C. PPAR alpha, gamma agonist
19
The minimum HVPG for the development of esophageal varices in cirrhosis is
Answer
C. 10 mms of Hg
20
Patients with IBD who have symptomatic intestinal strictures can tolerate?
Answer
A. Soluble fiber
21
A 42-year male had been suffering from persistent heartburn and regurgitation. He used to respond to proton pump inhibitor with recurrence of symptoms on re-initiation of the drugs. He was advised upper endoscopic examination, which revealed Barrett's esophagus. The consultant asked the trainee resident to classify endoscopically the characteristics of the Barrette's esophagus. Which of the following classification was used?
Answer
B. Prague classification
22
28-year-old male presented with a history of intermittent episodes of dysphagia and meat bolus impaction. He was advised to undergo upper gastrointestinal endoscopy examination. The endoscopic examination showed multiple ring like lesions and the multiple biopsies from the lower end of esophagus showed a diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis. How many eosinophils are required to be there per high power field for the diagnosis of esophilic esophagitis?
Answer
D. Fifteen eosinophils per high power field
23
A 60-years old male presented to outpatient department with dysphagia to both solids and liquids for 6 months. He also complained of regurgitation. He was known to have ischemic cardiomyopathy with left ventricular ejection fraction of 25%. The high-resolution manometry confirmed presence of achalasia cardia. Because of his cardiac condition, botulinum toxin injection at the lower esophageal sphincter was thought to be an appropriate treatment for him. The resident doctor asked his senior, how does botulinum toxin will work in achalasia? The Senior explained that botulinum toxin
Answer
A. Inhibits release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminals
24
Which of the following condition leads to traction diverticulum in the esophagus?
Answer
D. Mediastinal fibrosis
25
The average velocity of peristalsis in the esophagus is 3-4 cm/sec. In how much time the food bolus traverses from cricopharynx to the stomach in a healthy individual?
Answer
C. 6-8 sec
26
Which of the following classification is used for endoscopic grading of esophagitis?
Answer
A. Los Angeles classification
27
A 50 years old male presents with recurrent severe chest pain, vomiting and occasional dysphagia. The coronary angiogram in him was found to be normal. Which of the following test is most appropriate for this individual?
Answer
A. An ambulatory 24 pH studies
28
The academic committee of an Institution changed the pattern of multiple choice questions used for selection of candidates aspiring for MD/MS degree. The change of system included three different sets of questions used for each entrance test. After the conduct of the entrance test, the committee compared the results of the examines getting test set A, test set B and test set C. For such a comparison, which type of test would have they applied?
Answer
B. Analysis of variance
29
A 30-years old woman presented with symptoms of dysphagia for 5 years. For the diagnosis of motility disorders of the esophagus, the high-resolution manometry is the most appropriate investigation. She underwent a high-resolution manometry examination. She was told that she has achalasia based on manometric features.Which of the following is the basis of the diagnosis of achalasia?
Answer
A. Integrated relaxation pressure of more than 15
30
A 56-years male has been having symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux disease for the past 4 years. He used to have recurrence of symptoms despite continued use of proton-pump inhibitors. He was then diagnosed to have refractory GERD. What is the criteria of making a diagnosis of refractory GERD?
Answer
C. No response in symptoms despite double dose of PPI for 8 weeks
31
A 23-years women presented to emergency department with complains of odynophagia, dysphagia, drooling of saliva and hoarseness within 30 min. after ingestion of sulphuric acid. You will take which of the following steps?
Answer
C. Do an endoscopic examination
32
Goblet cells are modified
Answer
A. Columnar cells
33
Which of the following statement is correct in regard to gastric metaplasia?
Answer
A. All patients with gastric metaplasia have gastric atrophy
34
Which of the following is false regarding making a diagnosis of functional dyspepsia using Rome IV criteria?
Answer
D. Symptom onset at least 12 months prior to diagnosis
35
Which of the following gastric pH is most appropriate for the replication of H pylori in the stomach?
Answer
D. pH 6-8
36
Which of the following is the most common site for occurrence for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
Answer
D. Stomach
37
The drug resistance pattern of H pylori is increasing. Which of the following drug has the least propensity to develop drug resistance for H pylori?
Answer
B. Amoxycillin
38
A 40 years male patient having functional dyspepsia, not responding to proton-pump inhibitor was prescribed acotiamide. Which of the following is not true about acotiamide?
Answer
C. More effective in epigastric pain syndrome subset of functional dyspepsia
39
Which of the following tests has the lowest sensitivity for detection of H pylori in a patient having H pylori related peptic ulcer disease
Answer
D. Culture of the gastric biopsies
40
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Menetrier disease?
Answer
B. They have high acid secretion
41
Which of the following is not true in case of a glucagonoma?
Answer
B. In a vast majority of patients, glucagonomas are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis
42
Adenocarcinomas of the periampullary region contribute significantly to mortality in Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) patients. Which of the following classifications is used for staging of polyposis in duodenum?
Answer
C. Spigelman
43
Which of the following is least likely to occur as part of the clinical features of WDHA syndrome?
Answer
C. Hypocalcemia
44
Among the cystic tumor of the pancreas, the classical CT description of a "spongy mass with central sunburst calcification" is used to describe
Answer
A. Serous Cystadenoma
45
Regarding acute pancreatitis, all are true except
Answer
C. Maximum attainable CTSI [CT Severity Index] is 12
46
All of the following are true about Type 1 Autoimmune pancreatitis [AIP] except
Answer
D. Female predominance
47
The genetic mutation that is sufficient to cause hereditary pancreatitis is
Answer
B. PRSS1
48
All are true in case of chronic pancreatitis except
Answer
C. Steatorrhea usually occurs when pancreatic lipase secretion is reduced to less than 30 percent of normal
49
The Bedside Index for Severity in Acute Pancreatitis includes all except
Answer
C. Impaired blood glucose
50
All are risk factors for ERCP induced pancreatitis except
Answer
A. High serum bilirubin levels
51
Rate limiting enzyme in classical pathway of bile acid synthesis
Answer
B. CYP7A1
52
All are principal causes of benign biliary stricture except?
Answer
C. Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis
53
All are features of malignant biliary stricture of cholangioscopy except
Answer
D. Short papilliform surface
54
In extrahepatic malignant biliary stricture, preoperative drainage is warranted in
Answer
B. Acute cholangitis
55
An 80 year old woman presented with biliary pain and gallstones. She is a poor surgical candidate due to her multiple comorbidities and hence initiated on medical therapy. Which of the following is true regarding UDCA therapy?
Answer
C. Night time dosing of UDCA is more effective than meal time dosing
56
In which of the following conditions is a prophylactic cholecystectomy recommended?
Answer
D. Choledochal cyst
57
A 14 year old girl with a history of hereditary spherocytosis is found to have gallstones on an ultrasound that was performed to evaluate abdominal pain and abnormal liver enzyme levels. What is the most likely composition of the gallstones?
Answer
D. Calcium bilirubinate
58
Reasons for failure of SOD [Sphincter of Oddi Dysfunction] to respond to sphincterotomy are all except
Answer
D. Acute pancreatitis
59
Which is false regarding acalculous cholecystitis?
Answer
C. Bilirubin and Alkaline phosphatase elevation points to alternate etiology
60
According to Bismuth classification of Biliary Stricture, a "Hilar stricture with no residual CHD but the hepatic ductal confluence is preserved" corresponds to?
Answer
C. Type 3
61
Pit cells are otherwise called as
Answer
B. Natural killer cells
62
Abernathy malformation is
Answer
C. Congenetal extra hepatic portocaval shunt
63
Defect in Gilbert syndrome is due to
Answer
B. Mutation in promoter region of UDP glucoronyl transferase
64
All of the below are scoring system for non invasive assessment of fibrosis in MASH except
Answer
C. NAS
65
HCV cirrhotic with MELD score <18-20-best treatment option
Answer
A. DAA first and then liver transplant
66
Most consistent and reproducible method to measure sarcopenia is
Answer
B. CT image analysis
67
All are indirect biomarkers of alcohol intake except
Answer
B. Urine ethanol level
68
Leipzigs criteria for Wilsons disease include except
Answer
A. Serum copper
69
AVENA criteria is for
Answer
C. HCC with tumor thrombus
70
Which of the following is not useful in severe alcoholic hepatitis?
Answer
D. UDCA
71
Which of the following does not cause granulomatous hepatitis?
Answer
B. Minocycline
72
Signature autoantibody in Type-2 Auto Immune Hepatitis is
Answer
C. Anti LKM-1
73
Which of the following treatment is not done in GAVE?
Answer
A. TIPS
74
MELD-Purgatory is classically described in
Answer
B. Hepatitis C treatment
75
Which of the following is not a marker of HCC?
Answer
C. TNF-
76
A 30 year old man had symptoms suggestive of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO). Which of the limitations of hydrogen breath tests for diagnosis of SIBO is false?
Answer
C. False positive test if the intestine harbours methanogenic species
77
A 50 year old man undergoes duodenal biospsy for work-up of malabsorption. Which of the following is incorrect regarding histopathology of tropical sprue (TS)?
Answer
B. Duodenal mucosa usually display more severe villous blunting than the ileum
78
There is a significant spacial geometry of transport proteins along the crypt-villus axis in the small intestine. Which of the following transport proteins does not exhibit a relatively constant concentration along this axis?
Answer
D. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)
79
Which of the following is a typical risk factor for development of community acquired clostridium difficile infection?
Answer
C. Female gender
80
A polyp removed from the transverse colon showed a saw-tooth-like in- folding of the epithelial crypts in histopathology. What is your diagnosis?
Answer
D. Sessile Serrated polyp
81
Which of the following enterotoxin uses Calcium ( ) as the intracellular mediator to stimulate intestinal secretion?
Answer
C. Enteropathogenic E.Coli
82
A middle aged woman was prescribed medications for the management of chronic constipation. Which of the following medication improves the symptoms by being a highly selective 5 HT-4 agonist?
Answer
B. Prucalopride
83
Which of the following statement about bile acid malabsorption (BAM) is correct?
Answer
C. Type 3 BAM can occur after cholecystectomy
84
Which of the extra intestinal manifestation of inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD) does not manifest or worsen with the disease activity?
Answer
D. Pyoderma gangrenosum
85
Choose the correct statement regarding fertility and pregnancy in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
Answer
D. Live vaccines are to be avoided in the first year of infants born to mothers receiving biologics
86
Which of the following factor predicts a better outcome in a patient admitted with features of chronic intestinal pseudo obstruction?
Answer
C. Sympathetic dysfunction
87
Primary small intestinal lymphoma (PSIL) is characterized by all the following except
Answer
D. Mural architecture is usually abnormal in the unaffected bowel segments in PSIL
88
Which is the incorrect statement about Dermatitis Herpetiformis (DH)?
Answer
A. Usually diagnosed in childhood
89
Which of the following established risk factors has a highest relative risk for post infection Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?
Answer
C. Prolonged duration of initial illness
90
The following feature or marker in colorectal cancer is associated with a better prognosis
Answer
B. Microsatellite instability
91
Which of the following trial is unrelated to endoscopic bariatric and metabolic therapy?
Answer
D. PONCHO
92
EUS FNB is better in the diagnosis of all of the following disorders except
Answer
B. Tuberculosis
93
In an adult blood volume is 5L. Plasma volume forms what proportion of blood volume?
Answer
D. 55
94
CADe and CADx stands for
Answer
C. Computer aided detection and computer aided diagnosis
95
Which of the following sigmoidisation is less likely to benefit from POEM?
Answer
B. S2
96
Which one of the following findings on MR enterograpny (MRE) is not a predictor of active disease?
Answer
D. Fatty inflitration of bowel wall
97
All of the following are EUS needle tip design which help procure core biopsies except
Answer
A. Triangular tip cutting edge
98
Which one of the following gene is more commonly associated with IBDI Asian population
Answer
C. TNF-SF 15
99
Which one of the following dyes used in chromoendoscopy is not used in colon?
Answer
B. Lugols iodine
100
All are image enhanced endoscopy except
Answer
C. e-scan
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