| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Medical Gastroenterology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 105/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 895/2025, 899/2025 |
| Date of Test | 19 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Regarding Hyperemesis gravidarum, which is wrong?
Answer
D. More common in multiparous mothers
2
Symptoms that suggest reflux induced asthma include all except
Answer
B. Worsening of asthma in empty stomach, rest or in prone position
3
Which of the following manifestations in HFE related Hemochromatosis will not be improving with phlebotomy?
Answer
C. Rheumatologic
4
Gastric secretion of Ghrelin is stimulated by
Answer
C. Hormonal (Glucagon)
5
Which of the following is not a component of Alvarado score for predicting acute appendicitis?
Answer
D. Red blood cells in urine
6
Which among the following is true regarding daily requirement of Magnesium by enteral route?
Answer
C. 300-400 mg
7
Regarding Acute Zinc toxicity in adults one among the following is not true?
Answer
D. Constipation
8
Which of the following is not true regarding major cytokines that mediates hypercatabolism and hypermetabolism associated with metabolic stress?
Answer
C. IL5
9
Which among the following is a hormone is implicated in Late dumping syndrome?
Answer
A. GLP1
10
Vitamin B6 is predominantly absorbed from
Answer
C. Jejunum
11
Which of the following condition is not common in a child with Hirschsprung disease
Answer
C. Tracheooesophageal fistula
12
In case of Viral hepatitis A, which of the following has the best sensitivity and specificity for predicting acute liver failure and mortality?
Answer
C. INR > 1.40
13
Ferrochelatase enzyme defect produces
Answer
B. Erythropoitic proto porphyria
14
Regarding Abernethy malformation, which of the following is not true?
Answer
A. Type I Abernethy malformation is more common in boys
15
Which of the following is not a component of Enhanced Liver Fibrosis test?
Answer
D. Chondroitin sulphate
16
Which of the following quantitative liver function test is very useful for prediction of disease progression in HCV related chronic hepatitis?
Answer
B. Aminopyrine breath test
17
Prevalence advanced liver fibrosis in type 2 diabetes mellitus is
Answer
D. 06-19%
18
Boyce sign may be elicited in which of the following condition?
Answer
B. Zenker diverticula
19
Which of the following is not common with Anomalous pancreatico biliary union?
Answer
C. Carcinoma pancreas
20
Which of the following is true regarding Plain film in case of Acute mesenteric ischaemia?
Answer
D. All of the above
21
Which of the following arteries is called the ‘Lusorian artery’?
Answer
A. Aberrant right subclavian artery
22
Which of the following is the most common type of esophageal atresia?
Answer
B. Esophageal atresia and the distal segment forming tracheoesophageal fistula
23
Which one of the following is false about Deglutitive inhibition?
Answer
D. Mediated by cholinergic neurons in myenteric plexus
24
Which one of the following is false about Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations (tLESR)?
Answer
B. Tension receptors are more involved
25
Which of the following is false regarding cervical inlet patch?
Answer
A. Found in 25% of patients during upper endoscopy
26
Which of the following is a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma?
Answer
D. Obesity
27
‘Boyce sign’ is seen in which of the following?
Answer
B. Zenker’s diverticula
28
Which of the following is true regarding Granular cell tumor of esophagus?
Answer
C. S100 positive
29
Which of the following is not true about Lymphocytic esophagitis?
Answer
B. At least 10 intraepithelial lymphocytes per high power field must be present for diagnosis
30
The screening for Barrett’s esophagus should be considered in chronic GERD patients with the following risk factors except
Answer
C. Alcohol consumption
31
Which of the following is not a definite risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma?
Answer
D. History of gastric ulcer
32
Which of the following is a strong risk factor for stress-related gastric and duodenal mucosal injury?
Answer
A. ICU patient with burns
33
The interstitial cells of Cajal (ICCs) are known to originate from which of the following cell types?
Answer
C. c-Kit-positive mesenchymal cell precursors
34
Which one of the following is false about migrating motor complex?
Answer
B. Originate in stomach and terminate in rectum
35
One of the following is true regarding Environmental metaplastic atrophic gastritis
Answer
C. Antral involvement
36
Which of the following is false regarding Menetrier’s disease?
Answer
A. It will have an aggressive course in the post-partum period
37
Which of the following criteria is not recommended for gastric Endoscopic mucosal resection?
Answer
B. The maximum size of the tumor is less than 4 cm when the lesion is slightly elevated (type IIa) and more than 1 cm when the tumor is flat or slightly depressed (type IIb or IIc) without an ulcer scar
38
One of the following is false regarding Gastric volvulus?
Answer
C. Mesentero-axial type is most common
39
As per the Forest classification of endoscopic appearance of bleeding gastric ulcer, which of the following type denotes ‘non-bleeding visible vessel’?
Answer
C. Type 2A
40
The following is true regarding Zollinger Ellison syndrome
Answer
B. 30% of Gastrinomas are found in the Gastrinoma triangle
41
The anatomical abnormality in Incomplete type Pancreas Divisum is?
Answer
C. Dorsal and ventral ducts having a small communication
42
False statement regarding Pancreatobiliary malunion (PBM) is?
Answer
B. In the Y type of PBM, there is a long common channel more than 20 mm
43
All are true about the common histology in Type 2 Autoimmune pancreatitis except
Answer
D. Obliterative phlebitis
44
In ERCP, if the main pancreatic duct appears abnormal with 4 abnormal side branches but there are no large cavities, obstruction, strictures or filling defects, the Cambridge grading of Chronic Pancreatitis is
Answer
C. Moderate
45
Regarding pain management in Chronic Pancreatitis (CP), which statement is false?
Answer
A. Delivering lipases to the duodenum or very proximal jejunum is primarily responsible for reduction of pancreatic secretion
46
A 42-year-old woman presents with abdominal discomfort and a palpable epigastric mass. There is a well encapsulated solid lesion with cystic components of size 7 cm in pancreatic body in the CECT. EUS shows internal hemorrhage and cystic degeneration.lt was later diagnosed to be a solid pseudopapillary neoplasm (SPN). What is the typical pathological hallmark of a resected SPN?
Answer
B. Uniform neoplastic cells with nuclear grooves, separated by vascular hyalinized stroma
47
After the landmark WATERFALL trial, the current guidelines recommend fluid resuscitation in Acute pancreatitis as
Answer
B. 5-10 ml/kg/hr
48
All are associated with pancreatic Neuroendocrine tumors except
Answer
D. Lifraumeni syndrome
49
Type 3 c diabetes has all except
Answer
C. Fewer microvascular complications than Type 1 DM
50
ln an incidentally detected pancreatic cyst, all are included in the "GREY ZONE OF RISK” except
Answer
C. Enhancing mural nodule less than 5 mm
51
The characteristic mutation in syndromic paucity of interlobular bile ducts presenting as chronic cholestasis in children is
Answer
B. JAG 1
52
A 55 yr old woman was incidentally detected to have several GB calculi with extensive intramural calcification of the GB wall. The most appropriate next step is
Answer
D. Panning cholecystectomy
53
Which of the following is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?
Answer
B. Cirrhosis
54
Identify the false statement
Answer
B. Purely small bowel Crohn’s disease has more risk of PSC than colonic Crohn's
55
Distal bile duct stricture, papillitis and acalculous cholecystitis are the typical cholangiographic features in?
Answer
D. Ischemic cholangiopathy
56
All are prognostic models for PSC except
Answer
D. Lemann index
57
According to the TNM and AJCC/UICC staging for Carcinoma GB, Stage T1b tumor needs re-exploration and assessment for resectability. Invasion of which layer is T1b?
Answer
D. Muscularis propria
58
After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis, a 40 year old lady developed abdominal pain and bile draining from surgical drain. CT abdomen showed no collections. ERCP demonstrated low grade bile leak from duct of Luschke with no filling defects in biliary tree. Next best step is?
Answer
B. ERCP + Plastic stent
59
In a patient with PFIC and elevated GGT levels, the mutated protein is
Answer
C. MDR3
60
Which is the false statement regarding Total Parenteral Nutrition and Gall stones?
Answer
C. CCK Octapeptide should not be routinely used in long term TPN patients
61
Which is false regarding Abernethy malformation?
Answer
C. Type 2 malformation is associated with cardiac defects and biliary atresia
62
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the liver?
Answer
A. Liver receives 70% of blood supply from portal vein and 30% from hepatic artery
63
Which of the following statements is false regarding Kupffer cells?
Answer
C. They possess sieve plates
64
Which of the statements is false regarding Alkaline Phosphatase?
Answer
B. Clearance of ALP from serum is dependent on the biliary tract patency and liver functional capacity
65
Cholestatic Hepatitis is caused by all the following drugs except
Answer
D. Carbamazepine
66
Which of the following is true regarding PBC?
Answer
C. Failure to respond to UDCA is associated with a reduced transplant free survival and increased risk of disease related complications
67
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Saroglitazar in NASH pharmacotherapy?
Answer
A. Dual PPAR and agonist
68
Which of the following is false regarding PTLD (Past Transplantation Lymphoproliferative Disorder) following liver transplantation?
Answer
B. Pediatric recepients are at decreased risk for PTLD
69
Which is false regarding Hepatopulmonary Syndrome (HPS)?
Answer
C. In contrast echocardiography, detection of contrast in the left side of the heart within 1-3 cardiac cycles after its appearance in the right atrium indicates intrapulmonary shunting
70
Which of the following statements is true regarding amebic liver abscess?
Answer
B. Jaundice is uncommon in amebic liver abscess and signifies a poor prognosis
71
An obese male patient 47 years of age is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis C infection. All the factors can be associated with progression of fibrosis in him except
Answer
D. Viral genotype
72
Which of the following scenario carries high risk of HBV reactivation in an HBsAg positive patient?
Answer
D. Hematopoetic stem cell transplantation
73
Which is a false statement regarding Wilson disease?
Answer
B. Seizures and intellectual impairment is common in Wilson disease
74
All are associated with high SAAG ascites except
Answer
C. Postoperative lymphatic leak
75
All are true of alcohol associated liver diseases except
Answer
D. Chronic alcoholics are less susceptible to acetaminophen hepatotoxicity
76
Congenital anomalies associated with Congenital Anorectal malformations include all except
Answer
B. Tracheo Esophageal fistula
77
Which of the following statements about small intestinal motility is false?
Answer
C. Ascending excitation refers to the contraction that occurs distal to a stimulus
78
The Neuroendocrine cell types in the small intestine and their products are given in the following table. All are matched correctly except Cell Type Cell product I P/D1 Ghrelin II EC 5 HT III G Gastrin IV M Neurotensin
Answer
D. IV
79
In the treatment of lBS which of the following statements are correct i. Abdomen pain is related to defaecation ii. IBS Diarrhoea is Bristol stool types 4 and 5 iii. Serine proteases have a role. iv. Chloride channel activators have a role in treatment of IBS-D
Answer
B. i and iii
80
A 55 year old comes to the casualty with features of acute abdominal pain and vomiting. Plain XRay abdomen showed multiple air fluid levels. CT Abdomen was ordered to rule out Intestinal obstruction. You except to find all the following findings except
Answer
D. Mercedes sign
81
In patients with Imerslund-Gräsbeck disease, which of the following molecular components is primarily affected, leading to cobalamin malabsorption?
Answer
A. Amnionless gene mutations
82
The role of colon in malabsorption is as follows. Which of the following statements is false?
Answer
B. In normal subjects more than 80 g of carbohydrates much reach the colon to cause diarrhoea
83
A middle aged female Diabetic patient presents to the OPD with chronic symptoms of flatulence, diarrhoea, bloating. Her routine evaluation including blood tests, stool test, Imaging studies and upper GI and Lower GI studies were negative. For further evaluation of SIBO the following statements are correct except
Answer
C. Glucose Hydrogen breath test rise by more than 10 ppm at 90 minutes is diagnostic with a sensitivity of 62.5% and specificity of 81.8%
84
A patient with Post traumatic abdomen who underwent muliple intestinal resections who is on TPN presents with Jaundice, abdominal distension and altered sensorium. His Hb is 11 g/dL, WBC 5000 /mI, Platelet 80000/ml, Total Bilirubin 10 mg/dL ,ALT 55 U/L, Serum Creatinine 1.7 mg/dL, INR 1.8 .The treatment options for include
Answer
B. Combined liver and small bowel transplant
85
A 42 year old male migrant labourer from North India presents with a history of chronic diarrhoea. He was symptom free after he avoided wheat in the diet. He has recurrence of symptoms with abdominal pain, bloating and diarrhoea. All of the following statements are true in this situation except
Answer
B. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 confirms the diagnosis of celiac disease
86
A 38-year-old male agricultural worker from a rural village in Kerala, India presents with a 2-year history of chronic, watery diarrhea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any recent travel outside of Kerala. He consumes a traditional Kerala diet rich in rice, lentils, and fish. On physical examination, he appears malnourished with mild abdominal distention. Lab tests reveal microcytic anemia, iron deficiency, and low vitamin B12 levels. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (TTG) and deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) are negative. Upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies shows villous atrophy. Considering the clinical scenario and investigative findings, which of the following statements is most likely incorrect?
Answer
B. Villous atrophy is complete in Tropical sprue unlike Celiac disease
87
A 70 year old male presenting with diarrhoea and fever. Diarrhoea, abdominal pain and vomiting for 3 weeks. Watery diarrhoea with low volume stools with stool frequency 3 to 4 per day. No similar illness in family or neighbourhood. History of Diabetes Mellitus and Lymphoma. Vital signs shows tachycardia, hypotension and elevated temperature. Right iliac fossa tenderness. CT scan shows mild wall thickening of terminal ileum. Normal colonoscopy. Colonic biopsy was normal. Stool culture negative. Gram negative rods seen on blood culture. The following is the possible etiological agent.
Answer
D. Yersenia Enterocolitica
88
A 72-year-old woman with a history of heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted for acute exacerbation of COPD requiring mechanical ventilation. She receives broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected hospital- acquired pneumonia. On day 4 of hospitalization, she develops new-onset watery diarrhea with a frequency of 10 times per day. Suspected Clostridium Difficile infection. Which of the statements regarding management is correct
Answer
B. Enzyme Linked Immunoassay for GDH toxin has got 85% sensitivity
89
A 32-year-old street vendor presents with a 2-day history of profuse watery diarrhea (up to 15 times daily) and forceful vomiting. He denies fever, abdominal pain, or recent travel. He acknowledges consuming street food from vendors near a crowded market with questionable sanitation. On examination, he appears dehydrated with dry mucous membranes arid weak pulses. Laboratory investigations reveal : Hyponatremia (serum sodium 130 mEq/L),Metabolic alkalosis, Microscopic examination of stool reveals gram negative, comma-shaped bacilli. Which of the following is not corrects?
Answer
A. Antimicrobial therapy is not recommended
90
The composition of WHO(2002) ORS solution for carbohydrates (g/L)/ Sodium (mmol/l)/Potassium(mmol/L)/Chloride (mmol/L) is as follows
Answer
B. 13.5/75/20/65
91
Which of the following statements is/are correct about appetite? i. Ghrelin administration stimulates food intake ii. Semaglutide is a dual GLP-1 receptor agonist/glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide (GIP) receptor agonist iii. Tirzepatide is more efficacious in inducing weight loss than semaglutide
Answer
C. Only i and iii
92
Which of the following statements is/are correct about hepatitis D virus (HDV)? i. HDV has a single-stranded circular RNA genome. ii. Bulevirtide inhibits the entry of HDV into hepatocytes by binding to sodium taurocholate cotransport polypeptide (NTCP) and has shown positive results in treatment of HDV infection iii. Lonafarnib is an inhibitor of assembly and release of HDV from infected hepatocytes
Answer
D. All of the above
93
Which of the following statements is/are correct about diagnosis and treatment of acute appendicitis? i. For its diagnosis, ultrasound (US) is preferred over computed tomography (CT) in children and pregnant women, whereas CT is preferred in adults. ii. Clinical trials have shown that more than half the patients with acute appendicitis treated with antibiotics alone never need surgery during long-term follow-up. iii. Appendiceal or cecal cancer may be present in around 20% of patients older than 60 years who present with acute appendicitis.
Answer
D. All of the above
94
Which of the following statements is/are correct about treatment of inflammatory bowel disease? i. Vedolizumab is a humanized IgG 1 monoclonal antibody to a4 7integrin expressed on the surface of B and T cells. ii. Ustekinumab is a fully human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the p19 subunit of IL-23. but not that of IL-12. iii. Biologic agents should not be used in pregnant women with inflammatory bowel disease because of increased risk of poor fetal outcomes.
Answer
A. Only i
95
Which of the following statements is/are correct about celiac disease? i. Nearly one-third of persons who have HLA- DQ2 develop celiac disease. ii. Presence of antibodies against deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) is more specific than that of anti-gliadin antibodies for the diagnosis of this disease. iii. Scalloping of duodenal folds is a fairly specific feature of celiac disease.
Answer
B. Only ii
96
In a family, several members have a neurological disease. The family tree is shown below. Which of the following modes of inheritance are possible with this family tree? i. Autosomal dominant inheritance ii. Autosomal recessive inheritance iii. Mitochondrial inheritance
Answer
B. Only i and iii
97
As per international recommendations, which of the following is the best method for screening children born to HCV-infected women for HCV:
Answer
C. Using anti-HCV antibody test at or after 18 months of age
98
Which of the following statements are correct about Genome-Wide Association Studies (GWAS)? i. These involve testing for millions of genetic variants in DNA samples from persons with and without the disease of interest ii. These studies are useful since only a few subjects in each group are needed. iii. The association identified in such studies are highly likely to imply causation.
Answer
A. Only i
99
Which of the following statements are correct about narrow-band imaging? i. This technique involves the use of light of blue and red colour during endoscopy to enhance certain aspects of mucosal surface. ii. The coloured light is absorbed by hemoglobin and hence blood vessels appear dark whereas the other tissues reflect light and appear as illuminated. iii. Light of shorter wavelength penetrates only the shorter layer and shows details of the mucosal surface, whereas light of the longer wavelength penetrates deeper and shows details of deeper tissues.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
100
Which of the following statements are correct about the use of artificial intelligence (AI) in medicine? i. AI tools can identify patterns in images and hence perform well in classifying radiologic, pathology and endoscopy images. ii. An important advantage of Al is that a tool developed in one setting can be applied to other settings quickly and with good results. iii. Al tools can sometimes hallucinate, i.e. provide an output not based on facts, but is fabricated and distorted.
Answer
C. only i and iii
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