| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Medical Oncology - Medical Education Department |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 030/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 341/2023 |
| Date of Test | 21 March 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All the following are risk reduction strategies in BRCA mutated individuals except
Answer
C. Prophylactic B/L Oophorectomy
2
Which of the following will have very low/no risk of prolonged Azoospermia?
Answer
B. ABVD chemotherapy
3
Which of the following is the preferred method to establish tissue diagnosis of cutaneous melanoma?
Answer
D. Excision biopsy
4
Cancer immune editing includes all except
Answer
C. Evolution
5
Which of the following is not a factor used in the prognostication of advanced stage Hodgkin lymphoma by the International Prognostic Score (IPS)?
Answer
D. Age 40 years and more
6
What is the treatment of choice for solitary plasmacytoma?
Answer
B. 40 to 50 Gy of radiation
7
MRD negativity in ALL and MMR in CML:
Answer
B. < 0.01% and < 0.1% respectively
8
A 45 year old gentleman underwent endoscopic removal of a colonic polyp. Which of the following is NOT an indication for colon resection surgery?
Answer
C. Lesion in upper 1/3rd of submucosa
9
A 50 year-old patient presents with breast cancer involving axillary and infraclavicular lymph nodes and exhibits a pCR at mastectomy and sentinel node biopsy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy. What is the current standard of care for adjuvant RT?
Answer
B. Adjuvant RT to the chest wall and regional nodes
10
What is the most common type of small bowel malignancy?
Answer
C. Carcinoid
11
Which is the most common tumour suppressor gene mutation in pancreatic cancer?
Answer
B. CDKN2A/p16
12
Platelet dysfunction is seen with
Answer
B. Dasatinib
13
Which of the following is not included in 5 A's model of smoking Cessation?
Answer
C. Analyze
14
Among the following, routine antiemetic prophylaxis can be avoided in all except:
Answer
D. Eribulin
15
Which drug-adverse event is wrongly matched?
Answer
B. Bosutinib - Constipation/Ileus
16
All of the following are indication for annual screening MRI of breast except
Answer
B. Atypical hyperplasia
17
All of the following are indication for surgical biopsy after core needle biopsy except
Answer
A. LCIS
18
Anthracyclines inhibit:
Answer
B. Trop 2A
19
All of the following tumours are positive for CD 30 except:
Answer
D. Follicular Lymphoma
20
ENDURANCE trial studied newly disgnosed patients with Multiple Myeloma. All are true except
Answer
B. Improvement was seen in PFS (Progression free survival) but not in OS (Overall survival)
21
B/I prophylactic mastectomy - decreases the breast cancer risk by
Answer
A. 90-95%
22
Which of the following is not a component of Gail model for breast cancer risk estimation?
Answer
D. No of 1st and 2nd degree relatives with breast cancer
23
The statement regarding dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is true except:
Answer
C. The hallmark of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is t(15;22) (q22;q13)
24
Which feature is NOT a criterion for MGUS?
Answer
D. Normal free light chain ratio
25
In CML, presence of which of the following points towards poor prognosis?
Answer
C. Lymphadenopathy
26
Oberlin criteria is used in which malignancy?
Answer
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
27
All are acquired resistance genes in NSCLC except
Answer
C. BRAF class 2 and class 3 alterations in non V600E mutant lung cancer
28
For which of the following cancers is alcohol consumption not a risk factor?
Answer
D. Pharyngeal cancer
29
Which is most accurate regarding risk factors for breast cancer?
Answer
B. A prior diagnosis of breast cancer is a well-established risk factor for developing a new breast cancer
30
According to the Society of Surgical Oncology, American Society for Radiation Oncology and American Society of Clinical Oncology Consensus Guidelines, which statement regarding Breast-Conserving Surgery (BCS) in ductal carcinoma in situ is most accurate?
Answer
A. Positive margins are associated with at least a twofold increase in Ipsilateral Breast Tumor Recurrence (IBTR)
31
Regarding the use of High dose methotrexate, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
C. The drug is not dialysable during conventional hemodialysis
32
Regarding induction therapy of Acute myeloid leukemia in older adults, which is TRUE?
Answer
A. Venetoclax and azacytidine can produce CR in around 60% of patients
33
Which of the following is a suitable agent for tackling positive MRD status in acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Answer
B. Blinatumumab
34
Which of the following is NOT an inhibitor of VEGF?
Answer
D. Alpelisib
35
Regarding CDK/6 inhibitors in hormone-positive breast cancer, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
C. Abemaciclib has the highest inhibitory effect on CDK6
36
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding DNA repair and use of PARP inhibitors?
Answer
C. PARP-1 inhibition affects both single-stranded as well as double-stranded break repairs
37
Which of the following is the target of lenalidomide?
Answer
B. Cereblon
38
Regarding the mechanism of action of anti-emetic agents, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
D. 5HT3 antagonists act by blocking the effect of serotonin from GI mucosa afferent transmission to CNS
39
Regarding the management of toxicities of BTK inhibitors, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
D. Bruising in a patient on ibrutinib can be managed conservatively and need not trigger stop of the agent
40
Regarding immune therapy (Check point inhibitors) related AE (irAE), which is the TRUE statement?
Answer
A. Most irAEs happen in the first 8-12 weeks of starting treatment
41
A 46-year-old male with NSCLC, Adenocarcinoma, PDL1 60%, is started on Pembrolizumab. After 6 weeks, when he presents for his 3rd dose, he complains of abdominal pain and increased stool frequency upto 5 times a day, with occasional streaks of blood. His CBC, RFT, LFT, TSH and Cortisol levels are normal. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding further management of the current problem?
Answer
B. Stool culture and C diff evaluation should be done as the first step and then a colonoscopy may be considered
42
Regarding cytokine release syndrome associated with immune therapies, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
C. Cardic dysfunction associated with CRS is usually reversible
43
Regarding ALK mutated lung cancer and ALK inhibitors in lung cancer, choose the INCORRECT statement.
Answer
C. Alectinib is more efficacious in terms of PFS than crizotinib and also causes lesser anemia
44
A 50-year female with ER+ve, PR-ve, Her-2 2+ (FISH negative) breast cancer with metastatic disease is treated with first-line paclitaxel and has progressive disease while on letrozole and palbociclib. Which of the following would NOT be a reasonable choice of treatment for her?
Answer
D. Trastuzumab with abemaciclib
45
Regarding de-escalation of therapy in ER-positive, early breast cancer using gene profiling (Oncotype Dx), choose the TRUE statement.
Answer
C. A menopausal woman with a score <10 does not need chemotherapy
46
A 45-year-old male presents with 3 3 week history of cough and hemoptysis. He has a large lung lesion and multiple liver metastases. Bilirubin in 2.5 mg/dL. He has dyspnea. He has several bone lesions with pain. Biopsy is adenocarcinoma. The NGS panel is negative. PDL 1 is 50%. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Answer
A. Pembrolizumab with pemetrexed carboplatin
47
Regarding the infusion of paclitaxel, choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
C. Premedication with steroids will reduce infusion reactions
48
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for rechallenge with any form of L-L-asparaginase in a patient with Acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Answer
C. Symptomatic pancreatitis
49
Regarding Daratumuab used in myeloma, please choose the CORRECT statement.
Answer
D. For patients with myeloma kidney, it is recommended to use 50% doses
50
A 54-year-old male presents with hematuria. The evaluation shows a bladder tumor (biopsy : urothelial carcinoma) and PET CT shows bilateral lung metastasis and retroperitoneal and pelvic lymphadenopathy. He is ECOG PS 1 and has normal renal and liver functions. The first line treatment of choice for him would be :
Answer
B. Pembrolizumab + Enfortumab vedotin
51
Which of the following is not correct about Superior Venacava Syndrome (SVCS)?
Answer
B. Adenocarcinoma Lung is the most common malignant cause of SVCS
52
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? I. CAR T-cell therapy - diffuse cerebral edema II. L-asparaginase - dural venous sinus thrombosis III. ATRA - idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Answer
D. All of the above (I, II and III)
53
MNOP algorithm is used for the management of the following oncologic emergency
Answer
A. Malignant spinal cord compression
54
Which of the following Laboratory abnormality is not seen in tumpor Lysis syndorme?
Answer
D. Hypercalcemia
55
Which among the following is the most common etiology of hypercalcemia seen in cancer patients?
Answer
B. Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy
56
The most common type of classical Hodgkin Lymphoma is
Answer
B. Nodular sclerosis CHL
57
According to EORTC criteria to stratify early stage Hodgkin Lymphoma, which among the following is not a risk factor?
Answer
D. ≥ 3 nodal areas
58
Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct? I. t(11;14) is a characteristic chromosomal translocation found in Burkitt's lymphoma II. Plasma cell neoplasms usually express CD 138 III. Phenytoin use is associated with increased risk of developing NHL
Answer
B. Only II and III are correct
59
Which among the following is not a FDA approved PIK-3 inhibitor for patients with replapsed and refractory follicular lymphoma?
Answer
C. Alpelisib
60
Which among the following statement is not true about HIV associated NHL?
Answer
D. Plasmablastic Lymphoma is associated with HHV-8 infection
61
According to revised European Leukemia/Net classification system of AML, which among the following is an adverse risk category?
Answer
B. t(9;22) : BCR ABL-1
62
Which among the following are FDA approved treatment options for primary refractory/relapsed adult ALL? I. Blinatumomab II. Inotuzumab ozogomycin III. Tisagenlecleucal
Answer
D. All Three (I, II and III)
63
Which among the following is not a Myeloma Defining Event (MDE) according to international myeloma working group revised diagnostic criteria?
Answer
B. 40% or more clonal plasma cells in the marrow
64
Which among the following TKI is/are active in CML patients with T315I mutation? I. Ponatinib II. Bosutinib III. Nilotinib IV. Asciminib
Answer
A. Only I and IV
65
SEQUOIA trial is associated with which of the following agent?
Answer
B. Zanubrutinib
66
_______________ is defined as having smoked fever than 100 cigarettes in a person's lifetime and no current cigarette use.
Answer
A. Never smoking
67
The increased risk of malignancy associated with obesity is strongest in
Answer
C. Endometrial cancer
68
Which among the following statements about nutrition and cancer risk are true? I. Diet rich in calcium decreases colon cancer. II. Diet high in glycemic load increases risk of endometrial cancer. III. Coffee consumption associated with decreased risk of liver cancer.
Answer
D. All are true
69
According to 2017 AJCC staging of regional node involvement (non HPV associated oropharyngeal cancer) metastasis to a single ipsilateral node with extranodal extension is
Answer
D. N3b
70
Among the following, the most common mutation observed in adenocarcinoma lung is
Answer
B. KRAS
71
Deficiency of the following micro nutrient in diet is associated with increased risk of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
Answer
C. Selenium
72
Aflatoxin is associated with increased risk of
Answer
A. Hepato cellular carcinoma
73
Which among the following is not a preferred agent for breast cancer risk reduction in high risk post menopausal women?
Answer
B. Toremifine
74
Which of the following is not a side effect of Tamoxifen?
Answer
D. Increase in blood cholesterol levels
75
Which of the following is not associated with Small Cell Lung Carcinoma (SCLC)?
Answer
C. Screening CT scans can decrease cancer specific mortality in SCLC
76
A 52 year old male, is diagnosed as a case of nasopharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma, moderately differentiated, with bilateral cervical lymph nodes and multiple lung metastasis. Which agent along with chemotherapy in the first line has shown progression free survival and overall survival benefit in this setting as per the JUPITER 02 trial?
Answer
B. Toripalimab
77
As per the TNM Staging System for Cervical Lymph Nodes and Unknown Primary Tumors of the Head and Neck (8th edition AJCC), a 48 year old lady is designated N2 U status. What does U stand for?
Answer
A. metastasis above the lower border of the cricoid
78
What is the first line recommended systemic treatment for metastatic triple negative breast cancer with PDL1 CPS<10 and no germline BRCA1/2 mutation?
Answer
B. Systemic chemotherapy
79
Name the genomic prognostic tool that was explored in the APT trial update.
Answer
A. HER2DX
80
Which is the bispecific T-cell engager (BiTE) agent which has demonstrated promising survival outcomes in advanced small cell lung cancer?
Answer
C. Tarlatamab
81
56 Year old with metastatic adenocarcinoma of lung is on Trametinib. For which side effect, would you permanently discontinue the drug?
Answer
D. Retinal vein occlusion
82
Which is the first oral selective ER degrader which is approved for ER positive, HER2 negative advanced breast cancer patients with ESR1 mutations following at least one prior line of endocrine therapy?
Answer
B. Elacestrant
83
Most common subtype of basal cell carcinoma is:
Answer
A. Nodular basal cell carcinoma
84
Tebentufusp-tebn is approved for the treatment of
Answer
D. Metastatic uveal melanoma
85
Adagrasib is approved for the systemic treatment of
Answer
C. Non small cell lung cancer
86
Along with chemotherapy, which of these agents are approved for the primary treatment of endometrial cancer?
Answer
D. All of the above
87
What is the dose of IV Methotrexate in standard EMACO regimen?
Answer
A. 300 mg/m2
88
What is the gold standard for identifying POLE mutation?
Answer
A. Sequencing
89
What are the treatment groups compared in TIGER trial for relapsed testicular germ cell tumors?
Answer
C. TIP vs TI-CE
90
Pemigatinib, a selective fibroblast growth factor receptor inhibitor is approved for the treatment of which of these malignancies?
Answer
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
91
A 60 year old male is diagnosed with metastatic gastrointestinal stromal tumor with a platelet-derived growth factors receptor alpha (PDGFRA) exon 18 mutation - PDGFRA D842V. Which is your preferred systemic agent?
Answer
B. Avapritinib
92
Which among the following is a high risk factor when adjuvant treatment for stage II carcinoma colon is considered?
Answer
D. All of the above
93
What is N2b in the TNM staging for rectal cancer as per AJCC 8th edition?
Answer
C. Seven or more regional lymph nodes are positive
94
Compadri regimen is used in the treatment of
Answer
A. Osteosarcoma
95
PAX3-FOXO1 molecular abnormality is mostly associated with
Answer
B. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
96
Steinherz/Blayer algorithm is related to:
Answer
A. Central Nervous System leukemic status in acute lymphoblastic leukemia
97
'High risk sites' in Langerhans cell histiocytosis is all, except:
Answer
B. Pituitary gland
98
As per Modified Change staging system for posterior fossa medulloblastoma metastasis, what is the notation for gross nodular seeding in spinal subarachnoid space?
Answer
C. M3
99
MaGIC risk stratification is related to :
Answer
A. Pediatric germ cell tumors
100
What is the treatment of stage I Wilms' tumor, with focal anaplasia and no loss of heterozygosity 1p and 16q?
Answer
D. AVD×25 weeks, 10.8 Gy RT to flank
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