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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Medical Oncology – Medical Education Previous Question Paper – 114/2025/OL

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Post NameAssistant Professor in Medical Oncology - Medical Education
Question Paper Code114/2025/OL
Category Code010/2025
Date of Test14 October 2025
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Which of the following is a classic example of a tumor suppressor gene frequently mutated in cancers?
Answer
C. TP53
2
Defects in which DNA repair pathway are most strongly associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancers?
Answer
C. Homologous recombination repair
3
Which mechanism is least likely to activate an oncogene?
Answer
D. Promoter methylation
4
The BCR-ABL fusion gene results from a translocation between which chromosomes?
Answer
C. t(9; 22)
5
Activating mutations of EGFR in non-small cell lung cancer are most commonly located in which domain of the receptor?
Answer
B. Tyrosine kinase domain
6
MSI-high tumors typically show deficiency in which genes?
Answer
C. MLH1/MSH2
7
Which method is considered the gold standard for confirming HER2 gene amplification in breast cancer?
Answer
B. FISH
8
Which of the following is a direct downstream effector of KRAS signaling?
Answer
C. MAPK/ERK pathway
9
PD-L1 interacts with which receptor to inhibit T-cell activation?
Answer
C. PD-1
10
ALK-positive non-small cell lung cancers are most often associated with which histologic subtype?
Answer
C. Adenocarcinoma
11
In a tumor with Gompertzian growth kinetics, the fraction of cells killed by a cytotoxic drug is greatest when :
Answer
B. Tumor is small and growth fraction is high
12
The "shoulder" of a cell survival curve after radiation represents :
Answer
B. Sublethal DNA damage repair capacity
13
Loss of which adhesion molecule is most strongly associated with epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) and metastasis?
Answer
B. E-cadherin
14
Which of the following best supports the cancer stem cell model in solid tumors?
Answer
C. Serial tumorigenicity in limiting-dilution xenografts
15
Hypoxic tumor regions exhibit radioresistance primarily because of:
Answer
C. Decreased oxygen fixation of DNA damage
16
Which chemotherapeutic agent is most active in the M phase of the cell cycle?
Answer
C. Vincristine
17
Patients with germline ATM mutations (ataxia-telangiectasia) demonstrate :
Answer
B. Marked hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation
18
In oncology trials, which endpoint best captures the effect of a treatment on disease control before death from any cause?
Answer
B. Progression-free Survival
19
The key radiobiological principle favoring hyperfractionation over conventional fractionation is :
Answer
B. Exploitation of differential repair between tumor and normal tissue
20
Among the following malignancies, highest spontaneous TLS risk is seen with :
Answer
B. Burkitt lymphoma
21
Regarding the use of Doxorubicin, choose the CORRECT statement
Answer
B. Usually administered as a bolus
22
A 45 year female is diagnosed with EGFR exon 19 mutated lung cancer. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per current evidence?
Answer
C. Amivantamab with Lazertinib is superior to Osimertinib
23
Which of the following is NOT a bispecific?
Answer
D. Inotuzumab
24
A 56-year old male was evaluated for neck mass in midline and found to have enlarged thyroid of 5 cm. Biopsy is papillary thyroid cancer. He has a radio iodine scan which shows several lung metastasis and bone metastasis and 1-2 cm lymph nodes. IN view of stage 4 disease he is referred to medical oncology for starting TKIs. What should be the most appropriate action here.
Answer
A. Evaluation for thyroidectomy
25
Which of the following is not usually treated with anti Her 2 agents if mutation / amplification is identified?
Answer
D. Ewings sarcoma
26
Which of the following TRUE regarding vincristine neuropathy?
Answer
B. Urinary retention is a feature of autonomic neuropathy
27
A patient with renal cell cancer is started on pembrolizumab with axitinib. He presents with fine tremors and agitation on day 10 of cycle 2. What is the most likely cause?
Answer
B. Thyroiditis
28
Regarding side effects of supportive medicine- choose the incorrect pairing
Answer
D. Aprepitant : Cough
29
Patient with lung cancer on Gefitinib plus pemetrexed and carboplatin. During review after cycle 3, he complains of burning sensation and symptoms of reflux. Which of the following should not be done?
Answer
B. Pantoprazole
30
Regarding bortezomib, choose the TRUE statement
Answer
B. Twice weekly regimen is preferred in myeloma presenting with renal failure
31
Colon cancer started on FOLFIRI as second line. Presents on day 5 with diarrhea X6 episodes for last 3 days. Appropriate management :
Answer
C. Loperamide and Ciprofloxacin
32
A patient of lung cancer with oral agent present with long standing pedal edema. Most likely agent he is on is
Answer
D. Crizotinib
33
Most appropriate goal of therapy for a 23 year unmarried female diagnosed with low EUTOS score CML would be
Answer
C. Treatment free remission
34
Which of the following statements regarding the use of leucovorin is TRUE?
Answer
D. When used with 5-FU, leucovorin enhances its antitumor activity
35
Regarding supportive treatment while using Immune check point inhibitors, choose the TRUE statement
Answer
A. Thyroid function monitoring must be done
36
A 50 year female undergoes hysterectomy for endometrial cancer and is found to have low grade endometrial cancer, p53 wild type. Endometrioid carcinoma is involving <50% of myometrium is seen, no LVSI. However the right ovary shows a focus of tumor without capsular breach. The stage as per FIGO 2023 is
Answer
C. IA3
37
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of olaparib
Answer
D. Neuropathy
38
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for rechallenge with any form of L-asparaginase in a patient with Acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Answer
D. Hypersensitivity reaction causing anaphylaxis
39
Immune check point inhibitors are useful in all the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. Ovarian cancer
40
What is the most common histologic subtype of malignant?
Answer
A. Epithelioid
41
Tobacco use is linked to what percentage of all cancer deaths globally?
Answer
C. -22%
42
Which pictorial health warning requirement is mandated under Indian law for tobacco product packaging?
Answer
C. 85% of both front and back panels
43
All are approved drugs for first line treatment of nicotine dependence except :
Answer
D. Duloxetine
44
What is the recommended level of physical activity for adults to reduce cancer risk according to WHO?
Answer
B. At least 150 minutes of moderate or 75 minutes of vigorous activity per week
45
Which of the following interventions has the strongest evidence for reducing colorectal cancer incidence?
Answer
A. Regular aspirin use
46
Risk-reducing mastectomy in BRCA mutation carriers lowers the lifetime risk of breast cancer by approximately :
Answer
C. 80-90%
47
According to ASCO guidelines, what is the recommended duration of tamoxifen therapy for breast cancer prevention in premenopausal high-risk women?
Answer
D. 5 years
48
What is the recommended age for routine HPV vaccination in Indian under the national Immunization program (as of 2023)?
Answer
B. 9-14 years
49
Cervavac, the Indian-made HPV vaccine, provides protection against which HPV types?
Answer
A. 6, 11, 16, 18
50
Which statement about HPV vaccination in boys is correct?
Answer
B. Vaccination of boys helps prevent genital warts and oropharyngeal cancers
51
Which of the following is a frequently observed adverse event of interest that should be closely monitored in patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia who are receiving a BTK inhibitor?
Answer
D. Bleeding
52
A 65-year-old man who was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia 2 years ago. He was initially treated with Ibrutinib, but his disease has progressed. Which of the following options should you now consider for your patient?
Answer
D. Pirtobrutinib
53
Which of the following Adverse Event was most commonly observed with bispecific antibody Glofitamab in patients with relapsed/refractory Diffuse Large BCell Lymphoma?
Answer
A. Cytokine release syndrome
54
In Acute Myeloid Leukemia, all of the following mutational combination defines the ELN 2022 "favorable risk" group except
Answer
D. RUNX1 or ASXL1 mutation
55
Which molecular abnormality is associated with primary resistance to ATRA + ATO in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia?
Answer
C. PLZF-RARA fusion, t(11; 17)
56
Which conditioning regimen is preferred in Ph+ Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia patients undergoing allogeneic Stem Cell Transplant in Complete Remission 1?
Answer
B. Myeloablative TBI + cyclophosphamide
57
Which IPI (International Prognostic Index) factor is most strongly predictive of poor prognosis in DLBCL?
Answer
C. Elevated LDH
58
In Mantle cell lymphoma, which molecular hallmark defines the disease?
Answer
A. t(11; 14) (q13; q32) → CCND1/IGH
59
What is the preferred conditioning regimen before autologous Stem Cell Transplant in myeloma?
Answer
A. Melphalan 200 mg/
60
Teclistamab, approved for Multiple Myeloma, targets :
Answer
B. BCMA Ɨ CD3
61
According to AJCC 8th edition, Involvement of which of these structures will not qualify as T4 in Nasopharyngeal cancer?
Answer
C. Cervical vertebra
62
Most common genomic alteration in urothelial carcinoma is :
Answer
B. Mutation in TERT promoter pathway
63
Schistosoma haematobium infection is classically associated with :
Answer
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
64
Adjuvant nivolumab after cystectomy is FDA-approved in :
Answer
D. Both 2 and 3
65
Tarlatamab is approved for the treatment of :
Answer
B. Small cell lung cancer
66
Dose of Osimertinib is :
Answer
C. 80 mg OD
67
Tucatinib is FDA approved for the treatment of :
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
68
As per the International Association for the study of Lung Cancer lymph node mapping system, subcarinal lymph node is assigned the nodal station :
Answer
C. 7
69
Most common primary neoplasms of the anterior mediastinum are :
Answer
A. Thymomas
70
Which is the single most important risk factor for the development of esophageal carcinoma?
Answer
B. Barrett's esophagus
71
What is the life time risk of pancreatic adenocarcinoma for Peutz- Jegher's syndrome?
Answer
C. 30%
72
The average risk of recurrence with surveillance for stage I seminoma is :
Answer
C. 15% to 20%
73
Which is the approved systemic treatment for the adjuvant treatment of renal cell carcinoma?
Answer
B. Pembrolizumab
74
In men with metastatic castrate resistant prostate cancer, the most common mutations are observed in :
Answer
B. BRCA2
75
TITAN trial in carcinoma prostate investigated which drug/treatment modality?
Answer
B. Apalutamide
76
Dose of Olaparib in HRR gene mutated castration resistant prostate cancer is
Answer
D. 300 mg twice daily
77
Belzutifan is approved for the treatment of which of the following?
Answer
D. All of the above
78
Syndromes associated with osteosarcoma :
Answer
D. All of the above
79
The most common missense mutation in conventional chondrosarcoma is :
Answer
A. IDH1/2
80
In testicular germ cell tumor, a retroperitoneal lymph node mass >5 cm in greatest dimension is :
Answer
C. N3
81
What is the primary goal of cancer epidemiology?
Answer
B. To study the distribution and determinants of cancer in populations
82
Which cancer is the leading causes of cancer-related deaths worldwide in 2020, according to the World Health Organization?
Answer
B. Lung cancer
83
Which of the following is a major modifiable risk factor for developing liver cancer?
Answer
A. Chronic hepatitis B infection
84
Which demographic factor is the most strongly associated with an increased risk of breast cancer?
Answer
C. Older age (>50 years)
85
What is the primary source of data for cancer incidence in India?
Answer
C. National Centre for Disease Informatics and Research
86
Which is the most commonly diagnosed cancer globally, according to GLOBOCAN 2020 estimates?
Answer
B. Breast cancer
87
What is a key limitation of cancer registry data in epidemiological studies?
Answer
B. They may under report cases in low-resource settings
88
All the following are descriptive studies except
Answer
B. Case control study
89
What is an appropriate measure of statistical association in a cohort study?
Answer
C. Risk ratio
90
Which of the following study design will be helpful if the department of health wants to know the burden of Carcinoma Cervix in the state of Kerala?
Answer
B. Cross sectional survey
91
The long-term adverse effects of chemotherapy for childhood cancer include :
Answer
D. Growth retardation and infertility
92
A 9 year-old child with osteosarcoma is being admitted for cisplatin therapy. What is the best regimen for prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV)?
Answer
C. Granisetron, dexamethasone at 50% dosing and aprepitant
93
An 18-year old male patient presents with bruising, fatigue and vague extremity pain. He is noted to be tachypneic and hypoxic and has a diffuse interstitial infiltrate on chest x-ray. CBC reveals a WBC count of 285,000/mm³ (85% myeloblasts, with monocytic morphology), hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL and platelet count of 36,000/mm³. What is the most likely cause of the infiltrate and respiratory symptoms and the most appropriate initial treatment?
Answer
B. Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy
94
A 9-year-old boy is being treated for standard-risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia. His treatment protocol requires administration of intravenous methotrexate and intramuscular L-asparaginase during interim maintenance chemotherapy. What is the most appropriate sequence of drug administration?
Answer
C. Administer the L-asparaginase 24 hours after the methotrexate
95
An otherwise healthy 18-year-old female is diagnosed with high-risk neuroblastoma after presenting with fatigue and bony pain. Of the following, what molecular aberration is most likely to be detected in her case?
Answer
C. ATRX mutation
96
Pharmacologic tolerance of opioid analgesics develops to all of the following side effects except:
Answer
D. Constipation
97
A 72-year old man with metastatic small cell lung cancer is admitted to the local hospice for symptom control of intractable hiccups. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer
A. Chlorpromazine
98
Mr. X has locally advanced bladder cancer with chronic pelvic and abdominal pain. Which of the following is most important in determining the maximum dose of oral morphine during dose titration?
Answer
A. Pain relief
99
When reviewing the biochemistry panel of a newly diagnosed patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia who is lethargic, complaining of flank pain and experiencing nausea and vomiting, which of the following would you expect to see?
Answer
D. Potassium 7 mmol/L, phosphorus 12 mg/dL, uric acid 10 mg/dL, calcium 7 mg/dL, BUN 25 mg/dL
100
The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the 'end of life' is with:
Answer
B. Opioids for dyspnoea

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