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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Medical Oncology Previous Question Paper – 061/2025/OL

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Post NameAssistant Professor in Medical Oncology
DepartmentMedical Education
Question Paper Code061/2025/OL
Category Code534/2024
Date of Test26 June 2025
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Which gene is most commonly mutated in human cancers?
Answer
B. TP53
2
Which protein is a key negative regulator of the G1 to S phase transition in the cell cycle?
Answer
C. p21
3
The intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is initiated by
Answer
B. Mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization
4
Which of the following proteomic techniques is commonly used to study cancer biomarkers?
Answer
C. 2D gel electrophoresis
5
Which oncogene is commonly activated in colorectal cancer and encodes a small GTPase?
Answer
B. KRAS
6
Which protein family regulates apoptosis by controlling mitochondrial permeability?
Answer
B. Bcl-2 family
7
Loss of function of the Rb protein leads to
Answer
C. Uncontrolled cell cycle progression
8
Which angiogenic factor is most critical for tumor neovascularization?
Answer
C. VEGF
9
Which gene is associated with familial breast and ovarian cancer and involved in DNA repair?
Answer
C. BRCA1
10
Which process is most closely associated with epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) in cancer?
Answer
C. Metastasis
11
The indices that are used to measure Human Development Index (HDI) level, developed by United Nations Development Programme are all except
Answer
D. Infant mortality rate
12
The median % of increased risk of mortality for continued smoking after cancer treatment is
Answer
B. 119%
13
EAGLES study refers to
Answer
B. Smoking Cessation
14
Increased risk of malignancy associated with obesity is strongest in
Answer
A. Endometrial cancer
15
All are Indications that Warrant Genetic Counseling for Hereditary Cancer Syndromes except
Answer
D. None of the above
16
All the following trails are related to exercise impacting on moderate- intensity physical activity for both cancer prevention and survivorship except
Answer
C. Intervention trial
17
Naphythylamines as a strong etiological cause of
Answer
B. Bladder CA
18
MYH-associated polyposis is
Answer
A. Autosomal recessive
19
Drug implicated in pathogenesis of keratoacanthoma
Answer
A. Vemurafenib
20
The risk of cervical carcinoma is HIV is
Answer
C. 6 fold risk
21
Incidence of cancer is highest in
Answer
A. Asia
22
According to GLOBOCAN 2022 cancer with highest incidence rate globally is
Answer
B. Lung
23
According to GLOBOCAN 2022 cancer with highest incidence rate in India is
Answer
A. Breast
24
If 70 out of 100 cancer patients are alive five years after diagnosis, which one of the following statement is correct
Answer
B. Five year crude survival is 70%
25
The following statement about case control study is true except
Answer
D. It is a prospective study
26
Cigarette smoking is associated with increased risk of the following malignancies except
Answer
A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
27
Commonly used measure of cancer burden in a population includes all the following except
Answer
D. Morbidity
28
Obesity I associated with increased incidence of the following malignancies except
Answer
C. Carcinoma urinay bladder
29
Which one of the following is the Commonest cause of cancer related mortality in India according to GLOBOCAN 2022.
Answer
A. Breast cancer
30
Physical activity is associated with reduced risk of development of the following malignancies, except
Answer
D. Thyroid cancer
31
The goal of _________ is to ablate the tumor, rather than using fractionation on to achieve a therapeutic index
Answer
B. SBRT
32
Which of the following drugs do not belong to the class alkylating agents?
Answer
D. Cladribine
33
Which of the following statement is not true about the drug Altretamine?
Answer
B. It is an antimetabolite
34
Which of the following statement is false about liposomal doxorubicin?
Answer
B. Myelosupression is more compared to doxorubicin
35
Topoisomerase inhibitor payload is present in all of the following antibody drug conjugates except
Answer
D. Brentuximab vedotin
36
Which among the following is a first generation BTK inhibitor?
Answer
A. Irubtinib
37
The first antibody drug conjugate to receive FDA approval was
Answer
A. Gemtuzumab ozogomycin
38
Which among the following is not an anti PD-L1 antibody?
Answer
C. Nivolumab
39
Which among the following is a BiTE (Bispecific T-cell engager)?
Answer
A. Blinatumomab
40
Which among the following is not used in the management of CML?
Answer
C. Vemurafeniob
41
Which among the following is an oral selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD)?
Answer
B. Elacestrant
42
Tremelimumab is a
Answer
C. CTLA4 blocking antibody
43
Which drug is not FDA approved for first line maintenance of advanced carcinoma ovary?
Answer
B. Rucaparib
44
Which among the following toxicities is listed as box warning for Enfortumab vedotin?
Answer
B. Skin reaction
45
Which among the following toxicities is listed as box warning for Trastuzumab deruxtecan?
Answer
C. Interstitial lung disease
46
90-70-90 target applies to
Answer
A. Cancer of cervix
47
What is the dose of Darolutamide?
Answer
D. 600 mg twice daily
48
What is the mechanism of action of Amivantamab?
Answer
A. bispecific EGF receptor-directed and MET receptor directed antibody
49
Which of the following statement are false about Toclizumab?
Answer
C. It can be given a Intravenous only
50
Which among the following is a less known complication of all trans retinoic acid?
Answer
B. Hypocholestroplemia
51
Which of the following statements about low-dose CT (LDCT) for lung cancer screening is TRUE?
Answer
B. LDCT reduces lung cancer mortality in high-risk populations
52
The sensitivity of a screening test refers to
Answer
B. Its ability to correctly identify those with disease
53
What is FIT's main advantage over guaiac-based FOBT in colorectal screening?
Answer
B. No dietary restrictions
54
Which is NOT a Wilson and Jungner screening criterion?
Answer
C. Expensive/invasive test
55
Main cause of false-negative Pap smears?
Answer
A. Sampling error
56
Main reason for interval breast cancers
Answer
A. Rapid tumor growth
57
According to the ERSPC trial, what percentage of screen-detected prostate cancers are estimated to be overdiagnosed?
Answer
C. 50%
58
Which harm of cancer screening is demonstrated by improved 5-year survival rates without actual mortality reduction?
Answer
B. Lead-time bias
59
Why does mammography reduce breast cancer mortality despite its 66% sensitivity, while CA-125/ultrasound fails to reduce ovarian cancer mortality with similar sensitivity?
Answer
B. Mammography detects precancerous lesions
60
The PanSeer assay targets how many genomic regions for cancer detection?
Answer
B. 595
61
Which of the following is the most common cause of early-onset hemorrhagic cystitis in patients undergoing bone marrow transplantation (BMT)?
Answer
C. Cyclophosphamide toxicity
62
A 45-year-old patient who underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT) 3 months ago presents with hematuria. Urine cytology reveals "decoy cells". What is the most likely causative pathogen?
Answer
B. BK polyomavirus
63
Which findings would most strongly contraindicate ASCT in POEMS?
Answer
A. Severe pulmonary hypertension
64
A 58-year-old patient with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma is planned for autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT). Which of the following is the standard conditioning regimen in this setting?
Answer
B. High-dose Melphalan (200 mg/ )
65
Which patient would require dose-adjusted melphalan (140 mg/ ) instead of 200 mg/
Answer
B. Creatinine clearance < 40 mL/min
66
Which drug in BEAM is most associated with pulmonary toxicity?
Answer
B. Carmustine (BCNU)
67
A 28-year-old patient with refractory mantle cell lymphoma is planned for allogeneic SCT. Which regimen is mots approrpriate?
Answer
B. Flu/Melphalan (Fludarabine/Melphalan)
68
A 32-year-old patient with relapsed Hodgkin's lymphoma is planned for autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT). Which of the following is the most commonly used conditioning regimen in this setting?
Answer
A. BEAM (Carmustine / Etoposide / Cytarabine / Melphalan)
69
45-year-old patien undergoes autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) for multiple myeloma. On day +8 post-transplant, they develop fever (38.5°C), rash on the trunk and hypoxia ( 88% on room air). Chest X-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Lab tests reveal neutrophil count of 1,200/μL (rising from 200/μL yesterday). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
B. Engraftment Syndrome
70
A patient receiving thioptepa develops seizures and confusion. What is the likely mechanism?
Answer
B. CNS penetration causing neurotoxicity
71
Which of the following does not constitute a part of hypopharynx
Answer
D. Epiglottis
72
For Non HPV associated oropharyngeal cancer which of the following constitue N2 b according to AJCC 8th edition
Answer
B. Metasis in Multiple ipsilateral nodes <6 cm and ENE (-ve)
73
For clincally N0 neck which site does NOT form low risk for subclinical neck disease
Answer
D. T1 carcinoma soft palate
74
Which EBV viral oncoprotein is NOT expressed as part of Type II latency programme in the pathogensis of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer
C. EBNA2
75
Choose the correct formula for Combined Positive Score (CPS Score)
Answer
C. Number of PDL1 positve (tumor cells + lymphocytes + macrophages Ɨ 100 Total number of viable tumor cells
76
Which of the following mutation is not commonly associated with Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
Answer
D. RET
77
Which of the following hereditary condition is NOT commonly associated with increased risk of Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Answer
D. Werner syndrome
78
In patients with early-stage triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC), which of the following treatments has shown benefits when added to standard neoadjuvant chemotherapy?
Answer
B. Pembrolizumab
79
A mutation in which of the following genes is associated with hereditary diffuse gastric cancer (HDGC)?
Answer
C. CDH1
80
A 62-year-old man presents with iron-deficiency anemia and change in bowel habits. Colonoscopy reveals a mass in the ascending colon. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. What is the next best step in staging workup?
Answer
B. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
81
A 58-year-old woman is diagnosed with a 2.5 cm pancreatic head tumor. Imaging shows abutment of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV) < 180°, with no distant metastases. What is the classification of this tumor?
Answer
B. Borderline resectable
82
A 55-year-old woman with ER+HER2 - breast cancer is diagnosed with liver metastases. Her disease progressed on letrozole. She is still ECOG 1. What is the most appropriate next-line systemic therapy?
Answer
B. CDK4/6 inhibitor + fulvestrant
83
A 62-year-old woman, never-smoker, is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung. Molecular profiling reveals an EGFR exon 19 deletion. What is the most appropriate first-line therapy?
Answer
C. Osimertinib
84
A 59-year-old woman is diagnosed with extensive stage small cell lung cancer (SCLC) involving liver and bone. What is the preferred initial systemic treatment?
Answer
C. Carboplatin + etoposide + atezolizumab
85
In carcinoma ovary, as per the recent staging, what is the FIGO stage for macroscopic peritoneal metastases belong pelvic brim 2 cm or less in greatest dimension with bowel involvement outside the pelvis.
Answer
B. III B
86
Which IHC marker differentiates complete hydatidiform mole from partial hydatidiform mole?
Answer
C. p57
87
Which among the following syndromic associations of basal cell carcinoma is/are autosomal recessive?
Answer
C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum
88
The most frequent and highest penetrant melanoma susceptilibility gene mutation is seen in
Answer
A. CDKN2A
89
Which among the following is a true statement regarding Gastrointestinal stromal tumor?
Answer
B. Patients with SDH germline mutations are at increased risk of paragangliomas
90
Which is the incorrect statement regarding Dermatofibrosarcoma Protuberans?
Answer
B. CD34 is negative in DFSP
91
The risk for developing pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia is highest among which of the followin?
Answer
B. t(15;21) (q10;q10) c
92
Incorrect statement about pediatric Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Answer
A. Pituitary gland is high risk organ
93
How many subtypes of medulloblastoma exist?
Answer
D. 12
94
The terminology maturing neuroblastoma refers to tumors that contain less than ___________ % of mature glion cells.
Answer
C. 50%
95
An intern is assessing the general condition of a 4 year old girl child and the child's mother describes her as "she is active, but gets tired more quickly". The child's performance status as per the Lansky play-performance scale for pediatric patients is
Answer
B. 80
96
A 21-year male presented with history of facial puffiness and mild dysnea. On examination there are cervical lymph nodes upto 5 cm bilateral and features of SVC syndrome. He is having sPo2 of 95% on room air but with Resp rate of 24 per min and appears anxious BP, PR, are stable. X ray shows mediastinal widening and right sides pleural effusion. His CBC shows Hemoglobin 11 g/dL, WBC count : 17,500/cmm, platelet count : 1,25,000/cmm. Which of the following investigations WOULD NOT be appropriate in this patient?
Answer
C. Immediate Biopsy of the mediastinal mass
97
A 55-year female who was treated for tripe negative breast cancer 2 years back with chemotherapy and surgery now presents with back pain. On examination there is tenderness in D10-11 spine and exaggerated jerks in lower limbs. Power and sensations are normal. An urgent MRI shows destructive lytic lesions in multiple bones with compression of the cord in D10 region. Which of the following is to be done immediately?
Answer
B. Start Dexamethasone 10 mg bolus
98
A patient with advanced lung cancer on palliative treatment with chemotherapy present with altered sensorium. His evaluation reveals calcium of 15 mg/dL. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for the management of hypercalcemia in this patient?
Answer
D. Calcium binding resin
99
A 65-year male patient of Non Hodgkin lymphoma undergoing chemotherapy with CHOP regimen presents to a district hospital with fever. He had received chemotherapy 10 days ago at another center which is 200 km away. His temperature is 102 deg. F. He has mild cough. PR is 120 per min, BP is 130/80 mmhg. Other physical exam findings are normal. Chest X ray is normal. What should be done in emergency for this patient?
Answer
B. Send CBC but start first dose of IV antibiotics
100
A patient of cancer with severe pain in admitted for control of pain. He is initiated on IV morphine and pain is finally controlled with a dose of 20 mg every 4 hours in the hospital. Now he is planned for discharge home with oral morphine. What would be the appropriate oral dose of morphine for this patient?
Answer
A. 60 mm every 4 hours

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