| Post Name | ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN MICROBIOLOGY - NCA |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 006/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 031/2018 |
| Date of Test | 20 March 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which article defines the amendment of Indian constitution?
Answer
A. Article 368
2
'Ormmakalude Bhramanapatham' is the autobiography of
Answer
B. Nambi Narayanan
3
Which among the following was the centre of 'Tholviraku Samaram'?
Answer
B. Cheemeni
4
Origin of classical dance 'Kathak' is in
Answer
B. U.P
5
First electronic digital computer of the world is
Answer
D. Eniac
6
Name the book written by Anna Burns, which gets Man Booker Prize in 2018
Answer
D. Milkman
7
Where was the venue of first session of yogakshema sabha?
Answer
A. Aluva
8
World Habitat Day is observed on
Answer
C. October 3
9
Who was the first editor of monthly namely 'Vivekodayam'?
Answer
D. N. Kumaran Asan
10
Name of the first atomic submarine of India
Answer
C. INS. Chakra
11
Name the programme introduced by government of India for Bangladesh refugees?
Answer
A. Operation Insaniyat
12
Name the play written by Lalithambika Antharjanam on the basis of widow re-marriage?
Answer
C. Punarjanmam
13
Which Indian Five Year Plan is known as 'Gadgil Yojana'?
Answer
B. Third Plan
14
Name the film, which gets national award for best film on social issues in 2017
Answer
A. Aalorukkam
15
Swachhbharat scheme was inaugurated on
Answer
C. October 2, 2014
16
Which Tennis Cup is known as Rolandgarros?
Answer
D. French Open
17
Name the novel which gets Vayalar Award in 2018?
Answer
B. Ushnaraashi
18
The venue of 10th BRICS summit 2018 is
Answer
C. Johannesberg - South Africa
19
Name the programme of government of Kerala for rehabilitation of differently abled
Answer
A. Kaivalya
20
The first ever airport of Sikkim is at ____________.
Answer
D. Pakyong
21
Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is
Answer
A. IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2
22
The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is
Answer
C. Indirect coombs test
23
All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except
Answer
D. Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis
24
Elek's gel precipitation test is an example of
Answer
B. Ouchterlony procedure
25
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to
Answer
D. Heriditary angioneurotic oedema
26
Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by
Answer
A. IgG
27
Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?
Answer
A. Classical pathway
28
Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is
Answer
D. Escherichia coli
29
AIIR is needed in
Answer
B. Airborne precautions
30
According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in
Answer
C. Blue container (puncture proof box)
31
Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is
Answer
B. Closed drainage system should be maintained
32
Bundle care of VAP includes all except
Answer
B. Change ventilator tubings frequently
33
Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by
Answer
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
34
All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT
Answer
D. Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent
35
True about CBNAAT is
Answer
C. Detects mutations of the rpo B gene
36
Modified Faine's criteria is used for the diagnosis of
Answer
D. Leptospirosis
37
Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of
Answer
A. EHEC
38
All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except
Answer
A. Exposure monitoring not required
39
Flash sterilization is
Answer
B. Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes
40
Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant
Answer
C. 0.55%
41
Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Answer
C. Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask
42
Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to
Answer
D. Ertapenem
43
Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme
Answer
C. Formulary restriction
44
Types of EQA methods include
Answer
D. All of the above
45
True about TSI agar is
Answer
B. It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates
46
Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:
Answer
D. Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen
47
Ideally blood levels of vancomycin has to be monitored while treating MRSA infection. What is the trough level of Vancomycin?
Answer
B. 10-20 μg/mL
48
All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci except:
Answer
A. Bacitracin sensitivity
49
Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
Answer
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
50
Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to:
Answer
C. Altered penicillin binding proteins
51
Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?
Answer
D. D
52
Auxotyping is done for:
Answer
C. Gonococci
53
Choose the false statement regarding diphtheria toxin:
Answer
D. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum produces diphtheria like toxin
54
Shanghai fever is caused by:
Answer
C. Pseudomonas auruginosa
55
Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Answer
B. Type II
56
δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:
Answer
A. Detect requirement of X factor
57
Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regarding this agent EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections
58
Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
Answer
C. ADP ribosylation of G protein
59
Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty. He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:
Answer
A. TT 1 dose + HTIG
60
Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:
Answer
B. Urea breath test
61
Colicin typing is done for:
Answer
D. S.sonnei
62
Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
Answer
C. Detection of Vi antibodies
63
XDR TB is defined as:
Answer
C. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
64
Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:
Answer
D. Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
65
True about Leptospira interrogans:
Answer
B. Semisolid Fletcher's medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
66
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
Answer
A. Genital chlamydiasis
67
Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
Answer
D. Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
68
All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
Answer
C. Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
69
Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
Answer
A. Scrub typhus
70
How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?
Answer
A. 30% H_2O₂ + 10% Tween 80
71
Hair perforation test is positive in
Answer
B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
72
Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
Answer
C. Ingestion of eggs
73
True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
Answer
B. Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
74
Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
Answer
B. Sporothrix schenckii
75
Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
Answer
C. Subtype C
76
Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
Answer
A. Casoni's test
77
Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
Answer
A. Plasmodium malariae
78
All are true about super carriers except
Answer
C. Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg
79
Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
Answer
D. Liver
80
All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
Answer
D. Yeast cell size 2-4 µm
81
Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment
Answer
A. Genotype 1b
82
Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
Answer
C. Hepatitis E
83
All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
Answer
D. High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
84
True about Antigenic drift
Answer
A. Point mutation
85
Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of
Answer
A. Measles
86
Nipah virus belongs to
Answer
A. Paramyxovirus
87
All are true about Negri bodies except
Answer
D. Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
88
Rabies vaccine is prepared from
Answer
B. Fixed virus
89
All are human prion disease except
Answer
C. Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis
90
All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
Answer
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
91
All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
Answer
A. Not terratogenic
92
Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
Answer
A. Diffuse roundening and ballooning
93
Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
Answer
B. Serotype 2
94
All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
Answer
D. North American
95
Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
Answer
B. Bilateral parotitis
96
Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
Answer
A. Coxsackie virus
97
All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
Answer
B. One dose for adults
98
Germ tube test is positive for
Answer
A. Candida albicans
99
Following are true about Cryptococcus except
Answer
D. C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
100
Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
Answer
A. Kyasanur forest disease virus
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