| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Microbiology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 063/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 395/2024 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Biosafety level needed for handling samples of Ebola virus infection?
Answer
D. BSL 4
2
Second Generation Gene sequencing through Clonal amplification by Bridge PCR
Answer
B. Reversible Terminator sequencing
3
Ideal culture medium for Antibiotic susceptibility test.
Answer
C. Meuller Hinton agar
4
Biological control for Ethylene oxide sterilization
Answer
B. Bacillus subtilis var globigii
5
Drug which act by inhibition of function of cell membrane
Answer
A. Isoniazid
6
Aquaporine channels can be visualized by
Answer
D. Atomic force microscope
7
Chlamydia can be cultivated by egg inoculation into
Answer
D. Yolk sac
8
Bacterial toxin not coded by Lysogenic phage
Answer
C. Pertussis toxin
9
Concentration of glucose : sucrose : lactose in triple sugar Iron agar
Answer
B. 1 : 10 : 10
10
Which is anaerobic culture media?
Answer
C. Thioglycolate broth
11
Interleukin 6 is secreted by
Answer
C. TH2 cells and macrophages
12
Food allergy is an example of which type hypersensitivity reactions?
Answer
B. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions
13
Initiatives of alternative pathway are
Answer
D. All of the above
14
Heriditory angioneurotic oedema is caused by deficiency of
Answer
A. C1 esterase inhibitor
15
Which of the following statement is true regarding SCID mice?
Answer
D. All of the above
16
All are bacterial mechanisms to avoid host's immune response except,
Answer
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae enhances compliment activation by cleavage of C5a by proteases
17
Factors required for a successful vaccine
Answer
D. All of the above
18
All are immune benefits of breast milk, except
Answer
C. Lysozyme facilitates bacterial multiplication
19
Class 11 MHC antigens that encode glycoproteins expressed as antigen presenting cells are
Answer
D. All of the above
20
Name the autoimmune disease which is caused by auto antibodies against ribonucleoprotein Antigen present in salivary gland
Answer
C. Sjogrens syndrome
21
A Gram-positive coccus is isolated from a bloodstream infection. It is catalase-positive and demonstrates resistance to oxacillin and clindamycin (evidenced by a positive D-test), along with markedly elevated vancomycin MIC values. Which mechanism is most likely responsible for this organism's resistance to vancomycin?
Answer
B. Acquisition of vanA operon
22
Which key characteristics most effectively distinguishes Actinomyces israelii from Nocardia species?
Answer
D. Acid-fast staining profile
23
Which specific structural feature of Neisseria meningitidis enables it to evade the host immune system through phase and antigenic variation?
Answer
C. Lipo oligosaccharide (LOS) modification
24
Which of the following bacterial species utilizes a Type VI Secretion System (T6SS) that plays a critical role in competing with other bacteria in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients?
Answer
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
25
Which feature of Moraxella catarrhalis differentiate it from Neisseria species in a clinical isolate?
Answer
C. Glucose non-fermenting and butyrate esterase positivity
26
Granulomatous conjunctivitis and lymphadenopathy were reported in a child and were caused by a facultative intracellular bacterium. Which of the following best describes the pathogen?
Answer
C. Bartonella henselae
27
Lysogenic bacteriophage contributes which virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Answer
B. Diphtheria exotoxin
28
Which statement is TRUE regarding Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus)?
Answer
C. CAMP test is positive when plated with S. aureus
29
An emerging zoonotic pathogen Capnocytophaga canimorsus, causes fulminant sepsis especially in :
Answer
C. Asplenic or splenectomized patients
30
Identify the key feature of Mycobacterium kansasii?
Answer
C. Photochromogenic pigment production
31
The biomarkers for invasive candidiasis are all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Galactomannan
32
A 35-year-old HIV-positive man with a CD4 count 50 cells/ presents with headache and fever. CSF analysis confirms cryptococcal meningitis. What is the recommended initial (induction) antifungal therapy?
Answer
A. Amphotericin B plus flucytosine
33
A 50-year-old male agricultural worker presents with a slowly enlarging, verrucous lesion with occasional black dots on its surface on his left lower leg, persisting for the past 18 months. He gives history of injury with thorn. Skin scraping with 10% KOH preparation reveals brown, thick-walled, septate cells resembling "copper pennies". Which of the following fungi is the most likely etiological agent in this patient's condition?
Answer
B. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
34
Which of the following statements about Histoplasma capsulatum are TRUE? i. It is primarily transmitted via inhalation of bat or bird droppings. ii. It is an encapsulated dimorphic fungus. iii. Direct microscopy of tissue with Giemsa stain shows small intracellular yeasts with broad based budding. iv. More than 95% of immunocompetent person remain asymptomatic following low-inoculum infection with H.capsulatum.
Answer
A. i and iv
35
All the following are true statements regarding Mucormycoses EXCEPT. i. Broad, aseptate hyphae with wide angle branching. ii. High-dose systemic steroids and hypervitaminosis A are recognised risk factors. iii. Rhizopus arrhizus is the most isolated species iv. Voriconazole is the drug of choice for the treatment.
Answer
A. ii and iv
36
A 35-year-old agricultural worker presents with chronic swelling of the foot, multiple discharging sinuses, and black granules in the discharge. Direct microscopy reveals brown pigmented hyphae in KOH mount. Which of the following is the least likely causative agent?
Answer
C. Fusarium solani
37
Which of the following are characteristics of Pneumocystis jirovecii? i. A combination trimethoprim (TMP) and sulfamethoxazole (SMZ or SMX) is the drug of choice for treatment of all forms of pneumocystosis. ii. β-D-glucan in serum is found to be a useful marker for diagnosis. iii. It is transmitted primarily via the fecal-oral route. iv. Mutations in the ergosterol synthesis pathway are the main mechanism of resistance.
Answer
A. i and ii
38
Which of the following mycotoxins is primarily nephrotoxic?
Answer
C. Ochratoxin A
39
Candida auris is an emerging fungus with which of the following characteristics? i. Can cause outbreaks in healthcare settings. ii. Difficult to identify using conventional laboratory techniques. iii. Often exhibits resistance to multiple antifungal classes. iv. Primarily causes superficial infection.
Answer
C. i, ii and iii
40
The drug of choice for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is :
Answer
D. Voriconazole
41
Which is the gold standard test for the diagnosis of COVID-19?
Answer
C. RT-PCR
42
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding HBs Ag is positive in i. Simple carrier ii. Super carrier iii. Immunity following vaccination
Answer
B. i and ii
43
MMR vaccine is
Answer
A. Live attenuated vaccine
44
Early diagnosis of Dengue
Answer
B. Detection of NS1 antigen
45
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Rabies? i. Negri bodies can be demonstrated in brain of animal infected with street virus ii. Fixed virus is used for vaccine production. iii. It is a non-enveloped virus.
Answer
B. i and ii are correct
46
Which HIV testing strategy is used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in asymptomatic individuals?
Answer
D. Strategy III
47
Which of the following drug is effective against HSV infection?
Answer
A. Acyclovir
48
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Host cell requires cellular co-receptors for the entry of HIV? i. CCR-5 ii. CxCr-4 iii. CCR2 iv. CCR3
Answer
C. i, ii, iii and iv
49
CAM can be used for the isolation of following viruses i. Variola virus ii. Herpes simplex virus iii. Mumps virus iv. Vaccina virus
Answer
C. ii only
50
Which of the following virus can cause Erythrema infectiosum?
Answer
B. Parvovirus B19
51
The causative agent and vector for chagan disease
Answer
C. Trypanosoma cruzi and reduvid bug
52
Which statement is false about intestinal amebiasis?
Answer
D. Intestinal amebiarsis always result in dysentery
53
Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by
Answer
D. Trophozoites in the pus
54
Which of the following is true regarding stool examination in giardiaris?
Answer
D. All of the above
55
What is the primary mode of transmission of Diphyllobothrium latum infection to humans?
Answer
A. Eating undercooked or raw fish
56
Which of the following is false about echinococcus granulosus?
Answer
B. It resides in the large intestine of the definitive host
57
Coenurus is the larval form of
Answer
B. Taenia multiceps
58
The first intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica is
Answer
D. Snail
59
Nematods present in large intestine are all except
Answer
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
60
All of the parasites are found in CSF except
Answer
C. Trypanosoma
61
A group of people presented to the emergency department with complaints of vomiting and diarrhea after consumption of food at a marriage reception. The causative agent of food poisoning with incubation period of 1-6 hours is
Answer
A. Staphylococcus aureus
62
Which of the following is not a good biosafety practice in a viral diagnostic laboratory?
Answer
D. Flushing untreated labwaste down laboratory sink
63
All of the following antimicrobial agents act on cell membrane, EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Vancomycin
64
All of the following vaccines are given at birth, except
Answer
C. DPT
65
Which is not an ESKAPE pathogen?
Answer
B. Proteus mirabilis
66
Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase producing organisms are resistant to all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Carbapenems
67
In molecular diagnostics, a probe is used to
Answer
C. Bind to specific nucleic acid sequences
68
Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to emerging infectious diseases?
Answer
C. Vaccine development
69
The Mycotoxins is used as Biological Warfare (yellow rain)
Answer
C. Trichothecenes
70
Extensive drug resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is due to M.tuberculosis strains which are resistant to
Answer
D. All of the above
71
Which is the commonest etiological agent of endocarditis in intravenous drug abusers?
Answer
C. Staphylococcus aureus
72
Regarding antigenic drift in influenza viruses which statement is not true?
Answer
B. Seen in only influenza A virus
73
Which of the following organism is not associated with gas gangrene?
Answer
D. Clostridium butyricum
74
What is the incubation period in Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning?
Answer
A. 1-6 hours
75
Which of the following markers when positive indicate high infectivity of hepatitis B virus?
Answer
B. HBeAg
76
Which of the following statements regarding cytological and biochemical parameters in CSF of pyogenic meningitis is incorrect?
Answer
C. Glucose is highly elevated
77
Which is the most common cause of angular conjunctivitis?
Answer
A. Moraxella lacunata
78
The classical triad of Congenital Rubella Syndrome consists of the following except
Answer
B. Hydrocephalus
79
The most common etiological agent of Non-gonococcal urethritis is
Answer
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
80
All the following are Category A bioweapons except
Answer
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
81
Catheterization of which of the following vessels is not considered as central line for the National Health Care Safety Network central line surveillance purpose?
Answer
D. Atrial catheter
82
Find out the correct statement/statements regarding sterilization control. i. Spores of bacillus stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator of plasma sterilization. ii. Spores of bacillus stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator of autoclave. iii. Spores of bacillus atrophaeus is used as biological indicator of ionizing radiation. iv. Spores of bacillus atrophaeus is used as biological indicator of ethylene oxide sterilization.
Answer
A. Only i, ii and iv
83
The recommended minimum number of air changes per hour in a conventional operation theater according to CDC is
Answer
B. 20
84
Find out the correct statement/statements about the current biomedical waste management in India. i. The new biomedical management rule was published in the gazette of India by ministry of health and family welfare on March 2014. ii. Red colored chlorinated plastic bags with thickness 20 µm is used for infectious plastic waste. iii. Yellow colored non chlorinated plastic bags is used for infectious non plastic waste. iv. Broken glass container contaminated with cytotoxic drugs should be discarded in blue puncture and leak proof container
Answer
A. Only iii
85
The hand washing procedure in the obstetrics and gynecology department drastically reduced the cases of puerperal fever when it was first introduced in 1846. Name the physician and Scientist who first noticed the importance of hand washing?
Answer
C. Ignaz Semmelweis
86
Find out the recommended method/methods for the sterilization of materials contaminated with prion proteins? i. Autoclaving at 126°C for 30 minutes. ii. Treatment with 1 N NaOH for 60 minutes. iii. Treatment with 0.5% sodium hypochloride for 2 hours. iv. Autoclaving at 134°C for 1-1.5 hours.
Answer
C. Only ii, iii and iv
87
80 year old female patient was admitted in the medicine ICU with complaints of fever with chills, hypotension, myalgia and confusion. She was catheterized on the day 1 of hospitalization. Urine and blood was sent for culture on day I and report came on day 3 of hospitalization, urine culture grew E.Coli > cfu/ml. Blood cultue was sterile afetr 48 hours in incubation. What is your surveillance diagnosis?
Answer
A. Non Catheter associated symptomatic urinary tract infection
88
A 60 year old patient was admitted in the orthopedics department for knee replacement surgery. Patient was discharged on post op day 7. He was readmitted after 1 week with complaints of pain, swelling and discharge at the incisional site of 3 days duration. Pus collected by Incision and drainage was sent for culture which showed growth of Staphylococcus aureus. What is the surveillance diagnosis?
Answer
D. Organ/Space surgical site infection
89
Find out the true statement/statements regarding Catheter Associated Urinary Tract Infection (CAUTI). i. CAUTI rate = Number of CAUTIs identified ÷ Number of Indwelling urinary catheter days × 1,000 ii. CAUTI rate = Number of CAUTIs identified ÷ Number of Indwelling urinary catheter days × 100 iii. Supra pubic catheter can be considered for the surveillance of CAUTI. iv. CAUTI rate = Number of CAUTIs identified ÷ Number of catheterization in a month × 1,000
Answer
B. Only i
90
Find out the true statement/statements regarding post exposure prophylaxis of Hepatitis B after a needle stick injury to a Health Care Worker (HCW)? i. If the source is Hep B Positive, health care worker (HCW) is a non responder - Give two doses of Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBIG) 24 hours apart. ii. If the source is Hep B Positive, HCW had taken only one dose of hep B vaccine i.e. 3 years back (partially vaccinated) - Give two doses of Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin and initiate revaccination from the beginning. iii. If the source is Hep B Positive, HCW is fully vaccinated, with anti HBs titer 100 mIU/ml - No immunization is required. iv. If the source is Hep B Positive, HCW is unvaccinated - Give two doses of Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBIG) 30 days apart.
Answer
B. Only iii
91
Nipah virus comes under which category in the classification of biologic and chemical agents with potential for terrorism
Answer
C. Category C
92
All are true about experimental animals in Microbiology except
Answer
B. Gnotobiotic animals are kept in extremely clean but not sterile conditions
93
___________ is the best indicator of recent faecal contamination of water.
Answer
D. Thermotolerant Escherichia Coli
94
All are true about Settle plate method used for evaluation of quality of air in operation theatres except
Answer
C. It measure the total number of large and small bacteria carrying particles suspended in air
95
'NIKSHAY' is introduced by the Government of India for the surveillance of which of the following disease?
Answer
C. Tuberculosis
96
National Vector Borne Disease Control programme aims to control the following diseases
Answer
D. Kala azar, Malaria, Dengue, Lymphatic filariasis, Chikungunya, Japanese encephalitis
97
Advantages of WHONET software include all except
Answer
B. Automated and scheduled analysis is possible
98
All are true about External Quality Assessment (EQA) programme of a diagnostic test except
Answer
C. EQA shall be processed by the personnel who are not routinely performing pre-examination, examination and post examination procedures
99
Ethical principles adopted by CPCSEA (Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experiments on Animals) for the use of animals in scientific experiments include all except
Answer
B. Animals highest on the phylogenetic scale should be used for any experimental procedure
100
Limitation of freedom of movement of a healthy person or domestic animals exposed to communicable disease for a period not longer than the longest usual incubation period of the disease to prevent contact with those not exposed is termed as :
Answer
C. Quarantine
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