| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Microbiology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education Category No : 593/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 087/2022/OL |
| Category Code | 593/2021 |
| Date of Test | 26 October 2022 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Electron microscope was invented by
Answer
B. Ernst Ruska
2
Which of the following transport mechanisms in bacteria functions without energy requirement?
Answer
C. Facilitated diļ¬usion
3
The process by which microorganisms form ATP during glucose fermentation is characterised by
Answer
D. Substrate level phosphorylation
4
Sporulation occurs at _______ phase of bacterial growth.
Answer
D. Stationary
5
Protoplasts are related to
Answer
A. Gram positive bacteria
6
Which among the following is NOT an airborne infection?
Answer
B. Diphtheria
7
Essential requirement for laboratory containment level-2 include
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
Which of the following statement is TRUE about VITEK2 system?
Answer
A. Identify bacteria and yeasts
9
How many pairs of ampliļ¬cation primers are used in nested PCR?
Answer
B. Two
10
Which of the following is used for sterilization of dental equipments?
Answer
A. Ethylene oxide
11
Which bacterial spores are used as sterilisation controls in autoclave?
Answer
C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus
12
Northern blotting is used for separation of
Answer
B. RNA
13
Resistance transfer factor can be transferred from one bacterium to another by
Answer
C. Conjugation
14
Chemical nature of exotoxins is
Answer
D. Protein
15
Two year old child with recurrent bacterial infections causing otitis media and pneumonia is most likely deļ¬cient in
Answer
A. B cells
16
NK cells express a killer immunoglobulin like receptor which recognises
Answer
A. MHC Class 1 molecules
17
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
Answer
D. Inhibit elongation factor 2
18
Methods to recognise mutations include the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Capacity test
19
Choose the WRONG statement regards nude mice
Answer
D. Characterised by absence of ear lobe and thyroid
20
Genes that regulate programmed cell death is
Answer
A. bcl-2
21
Example for a subunit vaccine is
Answer
B. Hepatitis B
22
Which is the last component of personal protective equipment to be doļ¬ed after leaving the patient room?
Answer
C. Respirator
23
Needles are disposed in ________ coloured containers after use.
Answer
D. White
24
The recommended concentration of gluteraldehyde for disinfection of cystoscopes
Answer
B. 2%
25
Method used for qualitative evaluation of air in operation theatre include all EXCEPT
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
A 26-year-old male presents to the hospital with fever, rash, headache and bodyache ten days after a camping trip in the Himalayas. Physical examination shows generalized lymphadenopathy and a masculopapular rash on the thorax and extremities. Vital signs are as follows : blood pressure 105/76 mmHg, pulse 102/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 39.4 C (102.9 F). What is the primary site of proliferation of the most likely causative organism? i. Parenchymal cells of the liver ii. Endothelial cells of small vessels iii. Media of arteries iv. Endothelial cells of large vessels
Answer
B. Only (ii)
27
Which one of the following clinical manifestations of Lyme's disease is linked to the expression of HLA-DR4 or HLA-DR2?
Answer
C. Chronic destructive arthritis
28
Which is a reason for antimicrobial resistance being higher in a bioļ¬lm than in free-ļ¬oating bacterial cells?
Answer
C. Cells are metabolically inactive at the base of a bioļ¬lm
29
Which of the following statement about penicillin-binding proteins is/are TRUE : i. PBP is located in outer cell wall ii. PBP is essential for cell wall synthesis iii. PBP acts as carboxypeptidase and transpeptidase iv. Alteration in PBP is basis of MRSA
Answer
B. Only (ii, iii, iv)
30
Which of the following statements regarding the hyaluronic acid capsule of S.pyogenes are True : i. It is responsible for the mucoid appearance of the colonies in vitro ii. It is anti-phagocytic iii. It binds to CD44 on human epithelial cells iv. Streptolysin-O is structurally and functionally similar to tetanospasmin of Clostridium tetani
Answer
D. Only (i, ii, iii)
31
Which statement is true about the Nucleic Acid Ampliļ¬cation Tests used for the direct detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the genitourinary specimens?
Answer
C. The test has high sensitivity and speciļ¬city in symptomatic and high prevalence populations
32
A chest physician performance bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the outpatient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by
Answer
B. 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 min
33
Which of the following statements is/are False regarding Chlamydia trachomatis? i. Reticulate body divides by binary ļ¬ssion ii. Inside the cell it evades phagolysome iii. Elementary body is metabolically active iv. It is biphasic
Answer
C. Only (iii)
34
A 40-year-old female presented with purulent exudate through the left auditory dust and pain in the left ear region, which intensiļ¬ed during mastication. After collection of the pus from the left ear lesion, amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for sevan days was prescribed for a presumed diagnosis of acute otitis. Culture grew Vibrio spp. What would be the most likely causative organism?
Answer
A. V. alginolyticus
35
What is the source of Eco RI?
Answer
C. Escherichia coli R Y 13
36
A 40-year-old man is suļ¬ering from multiple episodes of disseminated gonococcal infection for the last few years. Cultures of his urethra and knee ļ¬uid yield Neisseria gonorrhoeae. What is the most likely cause for this infection?
Answer
D. Deļ¬ciency of a late-acting complement component C5, C6, C7 or C8
37
Plasmids confer phenotypes to the host organism, some of the plasmids to which these phenotyic traits have not yet been ascribed are called ________
Answer
D. Cryptic plasmids
38
In patients with pseudomembranous colitis, direct visualization by colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy will detect pseudomembranes in _______
Answer
B. 51% to 55% of cases
39
A 27 year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy presents with premature labour. She reports a recent history of a mild inļ¬uenza-like illness characterized by a low-grade fever, headache, vomiting, abdominal pain, and cramps in lower back. Prior to this illness, her pregnancy was uncomplicated. In this case, which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for premature labour and fetal distress?
Answer
C. Listeria monocytogenes
40
Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectra of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromycin is that it
Answer
B. Has greater activity against M avium-intracellulare complex
41
Which of the following types of drug-resistant bacteria do not typically persist in individuals as a member of their intestinal microbiota?
Answer
A. MRSA
42
Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug?
Answer
C. Treatment of throat infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
43
Which of the following bacteria is a small, capnophilic, gram-negative, oxidase-positive bacillus that can be isolated from human bite infections?
Answer
A. Eikenella corrodens
44
An 18-year-old high school student develops fever, cough, and chest pain. The cough associated with weight loss persisted. Lymph node biopsies stained with H and E reveal granulomatous inļ¬ammation and macrophages engorged with oval structures measuring 2-4 Ī¼m. Cultures incubated at room temperature grow powdery white colonies, which on microscopic study have tuberculate spores. The high school student most likely acquired the infection from which of the following?
Answer
D. Soil enriched with bird excrement
45
The fungi trichosporon commonly causes superļ¬cial infection of hair also called white piedra. Which of the following species of Trichosporon commonly causes scalp hair white piedra? i. T. ovoides ii. T. asteroides iii. T. asahii iv. T. coremiiforme
Answer
A. Only (i)
46
A 50 year old man suļ¬ered a burn injury in the right arm, after a few days he developed blisters and ulcers around the burnt area. During the routine examination, redness and swelling around the infected area were observed. Fungal infection was suspected and biopsy was done, direct microscopic examination showed thick, branched non-septate hyphae with a black round tip. In culture, cottony colonies can be observed after a few hours of incubation Name the possible pathogen responsible for the infection?
Answer
B. Rhizopus oryzae
47
All of the following are common pathogens that are naturally found in soil, Except?
Answer
A. Candida albicans
48
A patient who is resident of Himachal Pradesh presented with a series of ulcers in a row, on his right leg. The biopsy from the aļ¬ected area was taken and cultured on Sabouraud's Dextrose agar. What would be the most likely causative organism?
Answer
D. Sporothrix schenckii
49
Which of the following statement is/are TRUE regarding Miconazole? i. Miconazole is a broad-spectrum azole antifungal agent. ii. The primary mechanism of action is through inhibition of the CYP450 14Ī±-lanosterol demethylase enzyme iii. Miconazole is metabolized in the liver and does not give rise to any active metabolites. iv. Miconazole is indicated for the local treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis in adult patients.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
50
A 45-year-old South Indian man underwent a renal allograft transplant for end-stage renal disease. He was administered tacrolimus, mycophenolate and prednisolone as immunosuppressive therapy. On follow-up at six months, he complained of a small, painless nodule on his right calf. Clinical examination revealed a subcutaneous, 2x 2-cm, ļ¬rm, violaceous nodule with normal surrounding skin. There was no regional lymphadenopathy. The ļ¬ne-needle aspiration of the nodule showed hyaline, banana-shaped, and multicellular macroconidia on culture. What should be the probable diagnosis? i. Aspergillus ii. Dermatophytes iii. Fusarium iv. Mucormycosis
Answer
C. Only (iii)
51
Babesiosis, is a tick-borne disease resulting in a febrile illness. Infection with Babesia is most commonly observed in
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
The diagnostic characteristics of plasmodium falciparum are best described by which one of the following statements?
Answer
D. Except in infections with very high parasitemia, only ring forms of early trophozoites and the gametocytes are seen in the peripheral blood
53
An AIDS patient complains of headaches and disorientation. A clinical diagnosis of Toxoplasma encephalitis is made and Toxoplasma cysts were observed in a brain section. Which one of the following antibody results would be most likely in this patient?
Answer
B. IgM nonreactive, IgG reactive (low titer)
54
A patient whose major source of protein is smoked and cooked ļ¬sh develops what appears to be pernicious anemia. Which parasite is noted for causing a look-alike vitamin B-12 anemia in certain genetically predisposed infected individuals?
Answer
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
55
Trypanosoma cruzi initially penetrates through the mucous membranes on the skin and then multiplies in a lesion known as a chagoma. In the chronic stage of the disease, the main lesions are often observed in the
Answer
B. Heart and digestive tract
56
A patient who recently returned from camping in forest presents with malabsorption diarrhea. How does the most likely agent cause the diarrhea?
Answer
C. Suction disk attachment
57
A 42-year-old pt with AIDS presents with chronic, intractable, debilitating diarrhea. He says it began not long after returning from a camping trip. He admits to drinking water from a stream without using a ļ¬lter or boiling it. At the lab, GSA (Giardia Stool Antigen) test which comes back negative. What is his likely diagnosis?
Answer
C. Cryptosporidium parvum
58
A 9-year-old girl who appears listless and inattentive, although hearing and visual testing has been within normal limits. The physician ļ¬nds the child thin, with the ''potbelly'' of malnutrition, and orders a faecal exam and CBC. The CBC reveals a microcytic, hypochromic anemia, and the faecal exam detects brown, oval nematode eggs approximately 65 microns in size, too numerous to count. What was the most likely means by which this child was infected?
Answer
B. Ingestion of ova
59
A renal transplant patient was admitted for graft rejection and pneumonia. A routine evaluation of his stool showed rhabditiform larvae. Subsequent follow-up revealed similar worms in his sputum. He had no eosinophls in his peripheral circulation. The most likely organism is
Answer
D. Strongyloides
60
Amoebae that are parasitic in humans are found in the intestinal tract. Which one of the following statements best describes these intestinal amoebae?
Answer
A. They are usually nonpathogenic
61
Which of the following statements best describes Microsporidia?
Answer
D. Microsporidia are found only in a variety of vertebrate and invertebrate hosts
62
A man coughed up a long (4 to 6 cm) white worm and his chief complaint was abdominal tenderness. He reports that he eats raw ļ¬sh at least once a week. The following parasites have been observed in people who eat raw ļ¬sh : Anisakis, Pseudoterranova, Eustrongylides, and Angiostrongylus. Which of the following would best diļ¬erentiate the speciļ¬c parasitic agent?
Answer
B. Study of distinctive morphology of the parasite
63
Analysis of a patient's stool reveals small structures resembling rice grains ; microscopic examination shows these to be proglottids. The most likely organism in this patient's stool is
Answer
C. T. Saginata
64
All are correct regarding Zika virus infection EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Virus remains in blood longer than in semen and urine
65
Dengue virus appears to have a direct man-mosquito-man cycle in India. The mechanism of dengue virus survival in inter epidemic period is
Answer
C. Transovarian transmission in Aedes
66
Which of the following cell lines are used for isolation of inļ¬uenza virus
Answer
D. Monkey Kidney Cell line
67
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) genome is characterized by
Answer
D. Enveloped, Negative sense, non segmented, single stranded RNA
68
Which of the following is considered gold standard for conļ¬rmed diagnosis of JE virus?
Answer
A. PRNT (Plaque Reduction Neutralization Test)
69
Incorrect statement about Adenovirus
Answer
B. Serotype 40 and 41 produces cell rounding and aggregation into grape like cluster
70
Which of the following is Not correct regarding sample collection and storage for diagnosis of Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES)?
Answer
B. CSF sample stored at -20Ā°C if delay of less than 24 hours, for virus culture, RT-PCR
71
Which of the following is minimum acceptance criteria (ICMR) for Covid 19 IgG ELISA?
Answer
A. Sensitivity >=90% and Speciļ¬city >=95%
72
Q-CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts below
Answer
A. 50
73
Which of following types of HPV virus group contains all high risk type?
Answer
B. 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 42
74
What is the genetic structure of rotavirus?
Answer
D. ds RNA virus in segments
75
Which of the following statements about Lamivudine is FALSE?
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
A 21-day-old neonate is admitted to the NICU for evaluation of fever, focal seizures, irritability and poor feeding. Physical examination of the baby reveals nuchal rigidity with positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. A few vesicles 1-2 mm, in size are observed on the anterior abdominal wall and left forearm. Scrapings from the base of one such lesion reveal multinucleate giant cells. Based on the information provided, the most likely pathogen is
Answer
C. Herpes simplex virus
77
Which one of the following viruses is a biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) pathogen?
Answer
C. Nipah virus
78
The level of which antibody is induced in primary immune response?
Answer
B. IgM
79
Regarding urinary tract infections, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Answer
C. Ureaplasma urealyticum is the most common infective cause of chronic pyelonephritis
80
A 38-year cow keeper had a history of intermittent fever with body ache, loss of appetite and weakness for three weeks. On examination, no speciļ¬c signs and symptoms were revealed except anaemia. The cow keeper attended to this cattle and sold the milk in the market. What is the most probable cause of pyrexia of unknown origin?
Answer
B. Brucella abortus
81
A patient presented to an STD clinic with painful genital ulcer and painful, soft indurated enlarged inguinal lymph node. Identify the pathogen
Answer
C. H. ducreyi
82
A 27-year young man travelled to a village in the north-eastern part of India where he stayed for 3 days. After he returned, he developed abdominal cramps with mild fever followed by increased frequency of stool associated with blood and mucus. Routine microscopy examination of the stool sample revealed abundant pus cells. Which of the following may cause the above presentation?
Answer
A. Shigella dysenteriae
83
Triclabendazole is the drug of choice in
Answer
A. Fascioliasis
84
The only virus infecting humans whose DNA polymerase possesses reverse transcriptase activity is
Answer
D. Hepatitis B virus
85
A 22-year-old male college student presented of a high fever and chest pain. His chest x-ray does not show any signiļ¬cant consolidation except hilar lymphadenopathy. There was no history of productive cough. All of the below-mentioned bacteria can cause such an infection EXCEPT
Answer
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
86
A 2 year old child presents with weight loss and respiratory symptoms. His respiratory samples are subjected to the following tests. Which of the following will not be useful in his diagnosis?
Answer
B. Line Probe Assay
87
Which of the following statement is true regarding the HBV vaccine?
Answer
C. an anti-HBs titre of ā„ 10 IU/L is considered protective
88
Which of the following matching regarding biomedical waste guidelines is correct?
Answer
Question Cancelled
89
Feature not consistent with Plasmodium knowlesi malaria is
Answer
A. microscopy is the gold standard for diagnosis
90
Which of the following ampliļ¬cation method is not based on an isothermal cycle?
Answer
D. Real-time PCR
91
COVID-19 is
Answer
A. Single-stranded RNA
92
Which of the following is not considered for the reporting of central line infection
Answer
C. Femoral arterial catheters
93
Which of the following is not zoonotic?
Answer
B. Bordetella pertussis
94
MALDI-TOF is the identiļ¬cation system based on
Answer
A. Unique protein composition
95
Which of the following is not a chemical sterilant?
Answer
D. Isopropyl alcohol
96
The most common means of transmission of infection in the hospital is
Answer
C. Contaminated hands
97
Which of the following infection is not transmitted by droplet infection?
Answer
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
98
The stain commonly used to identify the coccidian group of parasites is
Answer
Question Cancelled
99
A preferred method of vaccine sterilization is by
Answer
A. Seitz ļ¬ltration
100
Which of the following is an example of live vaccines?
Answer
B. Oral tryphoid vaccine
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